Please see attached:
Probability is approximately: 0.256
Step-by-step explanation:
GIVEN,
f(x)=2x+1; g(x)=3x-2
NOW,
( 2x+1 + 3x-2)×3
=(5x-2)×3
=15x - 6 <em>A</em><em>N</em><em>S</em><em>W</em><em>E</em><em>R</em>
72 is 50 or above so you round it up.
<u />572 to the nearest hundred is <u>600</u>
Answer:
k = 48
For x = 6, y = 8.
Step-by-step explanation:
The general equation for inverse variation is
y = k/x
We are told that y = 24 when x = 2, so we plug in those two values in the general equation to find the value of k.
24 = k/2
k = 24 * 2 = 48
Now that we know k = 48, the equation for our case is
y = 48/x
Now we plug in x = 6 and find y.
y = 48/x
y = 48/6
y = 8
