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Marina86 [1]
3 years ago
6

Which of the followin is NOT a reason why the required return on a bond may differ form its par value?

Business
1 answer:
Paladinen [302]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

C. The required rate of return exceeds the coupon value, so the bonds sells at a premium

Explanation:

<em>The required return on a bond = Yield to maturity (Current Market interest rate) * Bond Par value.</em>

<em>Coupon return = Coupon rate of bond * Par value of bond.</em>

There are two types of returns on bonds-

<em>(1) Required rate of return (Yield to maturity related)</em>

<em>(2) Return from capital gain</em>

If the Yield to maturity (YTM) related return is higher than the coupon return, then return from capital gain will be negative i.e. there will be a capital loss, so the bond will trade below par value (at discount).

If the Yield to maturity (YTM) related return is lower than the coupon return, then return from capital gain will be positive i.e. there will be a capital gain, so the bond will trade above par value (at premium).

Hence, the required return rate (YTM related) and return from capital gain, both <em>cancel out each other</em> in a bond.

So, following the concept only option<em> (c) - the </em>required rate of return exceeds the coupon value, so the bonds sells at a premium is not a reason of <em>why the required return on a bond may differ form its par value.</em>

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pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

Option (a) is correct.

Explanation:

Contribution margin per marketing plan = Sales - Variable cost

                                                                   =  $3,000 - $2,000

                                                                   = $1,000

A.

(1) Break-even\ in\ rooms=\frac{Fixed\ cost}{contribution\ margin\ per\ marketing\ plan}

Break-even\ in\ rooms=\frac{400,000}{1,000}

Break even in marketing plan = 400

(2) Break-even in dollars:

= Break-even in marketing plan × Average rate per plan

= 400 × 3,000

= 1,200,000

(3) Margin of safety = Actual sales - Break-even sales in dollars

                                = 1,500,000 - 1,200,000

                                = 300,000

Margin\ of\ safety\ ratio=\frac{Margin\ of\ safety}{Actual\ sales}

Margin\ of\ safety\ ratio=\frac{300,000}{1,500,000}

                                             = 20%

B.

(1) Contribution margin per marketing plan = Sales - Variable cost

                                                                   =  $4,000 - $2,000

                                                                   = $2,000

Break-even\ in\ rooms=\frac{Fixed\ cost}{contribution\ margin\ per\ marketing\ plan}

Break-even\ in\ rooms=\frac{400,000}{2,000}

Break even in marketing plan = 200

(2) Break-even in dollars:

= Break-even in marketing plan × Average rate per plan

= 200 × 4,000

= 800,000

(3) Margin of safety = Actual sales - Break-even sales in dollars

                                = 1,500,000 - 800,000

                                = 700,000

Margin\ of\ safety\ ratio=\frac{Margin\ of\ safety}{Actual\ sales}

Margin\ of\ safety\ ratio=\frac{700,000}{1,500,000}

                                             = 47%

Therefore, option (a) would achieve the margin of safety ratio more than 45%.

7 0
3 years ago
Lerner Co. had 200000 shares of common stock, 20000 shares of convertible preferred stock, and $600000 of 10% convertible bonds
mestny [16]

Answer:

Basic EPS=$1.08                

Explanation:

Basic EPS= Net income after tax-preferred shares' dividend/Weighted average of outstanding shares

Net income after tax=$360,000*.7=$252,000

Dividend to preference shareholders=20,000*1.8=$36,000

Weighted average shares outstanding=200,000

Basic EPS=($252,000-$36,000)/200,000

Basic EPS=$1.08

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Vinnie (our friend in the video) had a lot of credit cards, and he did have fun with them! Then he nearly went broke. What was t
anyanavicka [17]

The main thing Vinnie did wrong was have multiple credit cards, and it say sin the question 'had fun with them' he probably did not monitor how much money he was spending.

8 0
3 years ago
Floyd Industries stock has a beta of 1.25. The company just paid a dividend of $.40, and the dividends are expected to grow at 5
stiks02 [169]

Answer:

5.62%

13.75%

Explanation:

According to the DDM method,

the value of a stock = [dividend x ( 1 + growth rate)] / [cost of equity - growth rate]

67 = 0.4(1.05) / r - 0.05

multiply both sides of the equation by r -0.05

67(r - 0.05) = 0.42

divide both sides of the equation by 67

r - 0.05 = 0.006269

r = 0.0563

= 5.63%

b. the cost of equity using the capm method =

risk free rate of return + beta x ( expected return - risk free return)

5% + 1.25 x (12 - 5) = 13.75%

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3 years ago
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I guess? I cant tell ....

6 0
3 years ago
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