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denis23 [38]
3 years ago
15

Is 16 percent of 40 the same as 40 percent of 16?

Mathematics
2 answers:
nikitadnepr [17]3 years ago
8 0
No 16% of 40 is 6.4 and 40% of 16 is also 6.4 but the procedure is different
Rudik [331]3 years ago
8 0
No it can only go one way it's not like addition and subtraction
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A number minus 8 and then subtracted by 12 is equal to 5 what is the number
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Please Help me To solve this Problem
mart [117]

You're given that φ is an angle that terminates in the third quadrant (III). This means that both cos(φ) and sin(φ), and thus sec(φ) and csc(φ), are negative.

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2 years ago
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6 0
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