3 years ago

Is 16 percent of 40 the same as 40 percent of 16?

Mathematics

2 answers:

nikitadnepr [17]3 years ago

8 0

No 16% of 40 is 6.4 and 40% of 16 is also 6.4 but the procedure is different

Rudik [331]3 years ago

8 0

No it can only go one way it's not like addition and subtraction

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If f(x)=6x^2+4x-11, then f(-5)=?

olya-2409 [2.1K]

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