Answer:
$74,932.66
Explanation:
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows.
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator
Cash flow from year 1 to 4 = $20,000
Cash flow in year 5 = $25,000
I = 12%
Present value = $74,932.66
To find the PV using a financial calacutor:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
I hope my answer helps you
Answer:
e. 14.20%
Explanation:
We use the formula:
A=P(1+r/100)^n
where
A=future value
P=present value
r=rate of interest
n=time period.
Hence
A=$450(1.1)^2+$450(1.1)^1+$450
=$450[(1.1)^2+(1.1)+1]
=$1489.50
Hence
MIRR=[Future value of inflows/Present value of outflows]^(1/time period)-1
=[1489.5/1000]^(1/3)-1
=14.20%(Approx)
That city has <span>purchase money security interest.
</span><span>purchase money security interest refers to a type of claiming rights that enables lender to make acquistion towards a certain asset in higher priority than other creditors. This type of rights is really important to secure the lender's profit in case the borrowers fail to return the credit (or went bankrupt)</span>
Answer:
$19,356
Explanation:
July
1 Beg. Inventory 54 $122
5 Purchases 306 $114
14 Sale 204
21 Purchases 153 $117
31 Sale 143
Number of units left = (54+306-204+153-143)= 166
On LIFO(Last-in, first-out) basis, these 166 units of ending inventory cost;
= (54*122) + (166-54)*114 <em> (Note:166-54 is to find the balance after the first 54)</em>
= $6,588 + $12,768
= $19,356
Answer:
Weight w1 = 0.65
Weight w2 = 0.35
Expected return =10.75%
Explanation:
w1 + w2 = 1 ........... (1)
w1 = SD of asset 2/(SD of asset 1 + SD of asset 2)
w1 = 11 ÷ (6 + 11) ⇒ 0.65
∴ w2 = 1 - w1 ⇒ 1 - 0.65
w2 = 0.35
Expected return = Weighted average
[0.65 × 9] + [0.35 × 14] ⇒ 10.75%
