To solve: use the simple interest calculation.
interest earned over the life of the bond = (bond price)(coupon rate)(years)
= (2,000)(0.04)(20)
= $1,600
So after 20 years on a 4% coupon bond starting at $2,000 Muriel will earn $1,600 in interest.
Answer:
A. internal rate of return.
Explanation:
Net present value method: In this method, the initial investment is deducted from the cash inflows of the discounted present value. If the sum comes under positive than the project would otherwise not be beneficial to the company.
The internal rate of return is that return in which the net present value is zero, meaning that the initial investment is equal to the present value of the annual cash flows after taking into account the discount factor
Moreover, the IRR could be in multiples also i.e multiple IRR.
Answer:
The statement is: True.
Explanation:
Partnerships are organizations that share ownership of two or more people. Corporations, on the other hand, are owned by shareholders who decide how and who will run the business. Partnership owners are individually liable, implying that the owners' assets can be taken away in front of the debt.
Debt or legal responsibility in companies is not individual. Liability is only dealt with at the company level. In reality, partnerships require reorganization when one of the partners is quitting or passing away, something that does not happen to corporations. For these factors, the majority of associations find it difficult to raise significant amounts of funds relative to companies.
Answer: The parliament is likely to allocate £ 1,23,93,800.62
We arrive at the answer as follows:
Amount allocated by President Obama $100,000,000
Amount England wants to contribute 20% of President Obama's allocation
Amount England wants to contribute in USD =
Exchange Rate $1. 61371/1 pound sterling
We can read the problem as if $1.61371 is equal to 1 pound sterling, how many pound sterlings are equal to $2,00,00,000?
Let number of pound sterlings be x
So, 
Answer:
The multiple choices are
a. $240,000
b.
$228,000
c.
$216,600
d.$205,770
e.
$0
The correct option is E,$0
Explanation:
The funding required from equity is 40% of the projected capital budget of $2000,000 which is expected to be from the profit attributable to stockholders since new issue of shares is not contemplated.
In other words, dividends payable to shareholders is the net income less their counter funding of the project which is computed below:
residual dividends=net income-(equity%*capital outlay)
residual dividends=$300,000-(40%*$2000,000)
=$300,000-$800,000=$0
In essence the $300,000 is not even enough as funds expected from equity less alone paying excess as dividend
