Answer:
The monetary value is $24,201.23
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flows:
Year 1= $6,800
Year 2= 6,800
Year 3= 6,800
Year 4= $15,000.
The discount rate is 15 percent.
We need to discount each cash flow to the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
Year 1= 6,800/1.15= 5,913.04
Year 2= 6,800/1.15^2= 5,141.78
Year 3= 6,800/1.15^3= 4,471.11
Year 4= 15,000/ 1.15^4= 8,576.30
Total= $24,201.23
The Correct 1 unit and 15 units are the outputs produced by domestic and foreign producers with free trade assuming there is no tariff.
<h3>What is a
free trade?</h3>
This refers to an international business policies that occurs when goods and services can be bought and sold between countries without tariffs, quotas or other restrictions being applied.
This policy tends to increase the volume of international trade among member countries and also allow them to increase their specialization in their respective comparative advantages.
Hence, in the graph given, the Correct 1 unit and 15 units are the outputs produced by domestic and foreign producers with free trade assuming there is no tariff.
Read more about free trade
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Answer: 0.3
Explanation:
The Sharpe ratio is simply used by organizations and investors in order to compare the return on an investment to its risk.
From the question, we are informed that a portfolio has a 30% standard deviation generated a return of 15% last year when T-bills were paying 6.0%.
The Sharpe ratio will be:
= (15% - 6.0%)/30%
= 9%/30%
= 0.09/0.3
= 0.3
Given:
Selling price = 6.99
Cost = 4
The dollar markup is computed by deducting the cost from the selling price.
6.99 - 4 = 2.99 is the dollar mark-up based on cost.
2.99/4 = 0.7475 x 100% = 74.75% is the percentage mark-up based on cost.
I think its D. hope this helps
