The answer is B hhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
Assuming the order required is as n-> inf.
As n->inf, o(log(n+1)) -> o(log(n)) since the 1 is insignificant compared with n.
We can similarly drop the "1" as n-> inf, the expression becomes log(n^2+1) ->
log(n^2)=2log(n) which is still o(log(n)).
So yes, both are o(log(n)).
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Answer: The answer is: C.
~ i hope this is correct, if not im sorry, have a gr8 day my friend!~
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: 2/3
Step-by-step explanation:
For example, if we multiply the numerator and denominator of 2/3 by 4 we get. 2/3 = 2×4 / 3×4 = 8/12 which is an equivalent fraction of 2/3.
Your answer: q=1.
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Steps:
1.) Add q to both sides. (11 + q = 12 - q + q.)
2.) Simplify. (11 + q = 12.)
3.) Subtract 11 from both sides. (11 + q - 11 = 12 - 11.)
4.) Simplify again. (q = 1.)
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Hope this helped :)
