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MissTica
3 years ago
12

Use the following balance sheet and cash flow statement information to answer the questions below. Liquid assets: $10,000; home

value: $210,000; monthly mortgage payment: $1300; investment assets: $90,000; personal property: $20,000; total assets: $330,000; short-term debt: $5500 ($250 a month); long-term term debt: $170,000 ($2100 a month); total debt: $175,500; monthly gross income: $9000; monthly disposable income: $6800; monthly expenses: $6000. Calculate the following. (please show work)
(a) Liquidity ratio
(b) Asset-to-debt ratio
(c) Debt service-to-income ratio
(d) Debt payments-to-disposable income ratio
Business
1 answer:
Ilya [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

(a) Liquidity ratio  for individuals

basic liquidity ratio = cash assets / monthly expenses = $10,000 / $6,000 = 1.67

Depending on the maturity of the investment assets, the liquidity ratio could increase, but since the information is limited, we can only consider liquid assets. E.g. if the investment assets include bonds that mature in a very short term they should be included in this formula, but if they include bonds that mature in x number of years, then they aren't included.

(b) Asset-to-debt ratio :

generally the formula is debt to asset ratio = $175,500 / $330,000 = 0.53

but here we are asked to find asset to debt = $330,000 / $175,500 = 1.88

(c) Debt service-to-income ratio

debt service to income ratio = monthly payments / gross income = ($250 + $2,100) / $9,000 = $2,350 / $9,000 = 0.26

(d) Debt payments-to-disposable income ratio

debt payments to disposable income ratio = monthly payments / disposable income = ($250 + $2,100) / $6,800 = $2,350 / $6,800 = 0.35

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The amount of joint costs allocated to product DBB-1 using the sales value at split-off method is (calculate all ratios and perc
kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

$2,213,640

Explanation:

Calculation for the amount of joint costs allocated to product DBB-1 using the sales value at split-off method

First step is to calculate the total amount

DBB-1= 16,000 units *$25

DBB-1= 400,000

DBB-2= 24,000 units *$35

DBB-2= 840,000

DBB-2= 36,000 units *$55

DBB-2= 1,980,000

Total =3,220,000

(400,000+840,000+1,980,000)

Second step is to calculate the Weight for DBB-3

Weight for DBB-3= 1,980,000 / 3,220,000 Weight for DBB-3=61.49%

Now let calculate the Joint cost for DBB-3

Joint cost for DBB-3=$36,00,000*61.49%

Joint cost for DBB-3=$2,213,640

Therefore The amount of joint costs allocated to product DBB-1 using the sales value at split-off method is $2,213,640

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following ratios indicates the percentage of each sales dollar that is available to cover fixed costs and to provid
tigry1 [53]

Answer:

The correct answer is the option A: Margin of safety ratio.

Explanation:

To begin with, the name of <em>"Margin of Safety"</em>, in the field of business and accounting, is refered to a ratio whose main purpose is to establish the point in where the company knows that it has to sale obligately due to the fact that at that point the company can be sure that they have covered the fixed costs of it and after that point every sale will became a profit for the company. So that is why that this ratio indicates the percentage of each sales dollar that is available to cover those costs.

8 0
3 years ago
A worker’s positive reaction to a negative performance review from an employer might be to ______.
wel

A worker’s positive reaction to a negative performance review from an employer might be option A "ignore the criticisms made at the review." Option A seems to be the best fit for this question because option B would I consider a negative reaction because addressing the employer over the negative review could start a fight and the other two seem too irrelevant for this question.

Hope this helps.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Investment X offers to pay you $7,100 per year for 9 years, whereas Investment Y offers to pay you $9,700 per year for 5 years.
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

a.

NPV X 44352,90

NPV Y 38729,29

b.

NPV X 28619,86

NPV Y 29008,94

Explanation:

To get the present value of each cash flow we use excel or spreadsheets.

File is attached with the comparison of both investments.

<u>Investment X </u>

Net Present Value (NPV) 44353   (Interest rate 8%)

Net Present Value (NPV) 28620 (Interest rate 20%)

<u>Investment Y </u>

Net Present Value (NPV) 38729 (Interest rate 8%)

Net Present Value (NPV) 29009 (Interest rate 20%)

4 0
3 years ago
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stepladder [879]

Answer: Experienced but unemployed people

Explanation: In times of economic slowdown such as a recession, the rate of employment goes up.  Many qualified workers seeking employment will not be hired.  Experienced workers lose their jobs as a result of a decline in production.

The experienced worker who fails in securing new jobs ends up starting their businesses. These experienced workers already have knowledge on how to run a business, and would probably have some saving. With their qualification and experience, managing a new business is not very challenging for them.

The 2008 financial crises resulted in the establishment of many new startup businesses.

6 0
4 years ago
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