NO It can not!
Reason: the reason is because since both are the same , it will equal the mostly 0! So it wouldn’t make sense. So no!
Hoped I help mark brainly it would help me a lot!
Answer:
A( multiply both sides by 6)
As seen , the L.C.M is 6 so to do away with the fractional form, we will multiply by 6
The triangle is an Corollary 1 to the isosceles triangle theorem.
Given that,
In the picture we have a triangle,
We have to find which triangle is it.
From the triangle,
The 2 sides are equal and the 2 angles are also equal.
So, The triangle is an Corollary 1 to the isosceles triangle theorem.
According to the isosceles triangle theorem, if two triangle sides are congruent, then the angles across from those sides are likewise congruent.
An isosceles triangle is one with two sides that are the same size and a third side that is a different size.
Therefore, The triangle is an Corollary 1 to the isosceles triangle theorem.
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4650
^ This is the hundreds place
Look at the number after it, if it's 5 or more we round up, if it's 4 or less we round down.
The number is 5, so we round up to 4700.
