X=6....6(6-6)=4(6=6) 6(0)=0....0=\=4 6=6
Answer:
5040
Step-by-step explanation:
every card in a 52 deck, is unique, and there are 7 cards drawn, without replacement, so your answer is 7!, 7! = 7*6*5*4*3*2*1=5040
Ur answer is 1369 that is ur answer hope it helped and hope u pass
1.
The first transformation, the translation 4 units down, can be described with the following symbols:
(x, y) → (x, y-4).
as the points are shifted 4 units vertically, down. Thus the x-coordinates of the points do not change.
A'(1, 1) → A"(1, 1-4)=A"(1, -3).
B'(2, 3) → B"(2, 3-4)=B"(2, -1).
C'(5, 0) → C"(5, 0-4)=C"(5, -4).
2.
The second transformation can be described with:
(x, y) → (x, -y).
as a reflection with respect to the x-axis maps:
for example, (5, -7) to (5, 7), or (-3, -4) to (-3, 4)
thus, under this transformation A", B", C" are mapped to A', B' and C' as follows:
A"(1, -3)→A'(1, -(-3))=A'(1, 3)
B"(2, -1)→B'(2, -(-1))=B'(2, 1)
C"(5, -4)→C'(5, -(-4))=C'(5, 4)
Answer:
A'(1, 3), B'(2, 1), C'(5, 4)
Option C:
The value of f(–6) is 6.
Solution:
Let f(x) = y.
The value of y is depend on the value of x.
Here x is independent variable and y is the dependent variable.
To find the value of f(–6):
f(–6) means, we should find the value of our function when x equals –6.
In the given image, see the line on the graph.
The value of x is –6, it is on the left side of the graph.
The value of y corresponding to x = –6 is 6.
y = 6 when x = –6.
So, f(–6) is 6.
Hence the value of f(–6) is 6.
Option C is the correct answer.
