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strojnjashka [21]
3 years ago
7

The Irregular figure can be broken into a triangle and a rectangle as shown with the dashed line.

Mathematics
1 answer:
telo118 [61]3 years ago
5 0

<u>Given</u>:

Given that the irregular figure is broken into a triangle and a rectangle.

We need to determine the length b, the area of the triangle , the area of the rectangle and the area of the irregular figure.

<u>Length of b:</u>

The length of b , the base of the triangle is given by

b=5-(2\frac{1}{3})

Simplifying, we get;

b=5-\frac{7}{3}

b=\frac{8}{3} \ ft

Thus, the length of the base of the triangle is \frac{8}{3} \ ft

<u>Area of the triangle:</u>

The area of the triangle can be determined using the formula,

A=\frac{1}{2}bh

Substituting b=\frac{8}{3} \ ft and h=3 \ ft, we get;

A=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{8}{3})(3)

A=4 \ ft^2

Thus, the area of the triangle is 4 square feet.

<u>Area of the rectangle:</u>

The area of the rectangle can be determined using the formula,

A=lw

where l = 5 ft, w=1 \frac{1}{3}=\frac{4}{3} \ ft, we get;

A=5 \times \frac{4}{3}

A=\frac{20}{3} \ ft^2

Thus, the area of the rectangle is \frac{20}{3} \ ft^2

<u>Area of the irregular figure:</u>

The area of the irregular figure can be determined by adding the area of the triangle and the area of the rectangle.

Thus, we have;

Area = Area of the triangle + Area of the rectangle

Substituting the values, we have;

Area = 4+\frac{20}{3}

Area = 10.667 \ ft^2

Thus, the area of the irregular figure is 10.667 square feet.

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Marina86 [1]

Refer to the image attached.

Since, we have to divide the polynomial 4x^2-2x+3 by (x+2) using synthetic division.

We will divide the coefficients  4  -2  3  by -2

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Second term = (-2 \times 4) -2 = -8-2 = -10

So, second term = -10

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So, 4   -10   23  is the correct answer

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A player of a video game is confronted with a series of four opponents and an 80% probability of defeating each opponent. Assume
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Answer:

(a) 0.4096

(b) 0.64

(c) 0.7942

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

P(W)=0.80

Then the probability that the player losses is,

P(L)=1-P(W)=1-0.80=0.20

The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

All the possible ways the player can win is: {L, WL, WWL, WWWL and WWWW)

(a)

The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats all 4 opponents) = P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)\times P(W)=[P(W)]^{4} =(0.80)^{4}=0.4096

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

                                    =1-(0.20)-(0.80\times0.20)\\=1-0.20-0.16\\=0.64

Thus, the probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is 0.64.

(c)

Let <em>X</em> = number of times the player defeats all 4 opponents.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

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3 years ago
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