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Mila [183]
4 years ago
14

IE 8-2 ... AS/AD Model – Suppose this economy was initially at Full Employment, but then experienced two large LEFT shifts of

AD. If the Price Level declines to $1.90, then Real Production GDP will have fallen to $4000 b and ______ people will have lost their jobs. In the Business Cycle the economy will have moved from Point "x" to Point _________ ..
Business
1 answer:
Galina-37 [17]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

10 million people. Point "t".

Explanation:

This analysis can simply be referred to as a severe recession which is also known as depression. It is defined as a condition whereby Gross Domestic Product is down by approximately 10% and there is about three to four years recession. Based on the above definition and the analysis given in the question, the situation is similar to a depression. Thus, the number of people that would have lost their jobs is 10 million and there is an adjustment from the "x" to "t".

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Kansamb Residential School, a school run by Christian missionaries, does not recruit teaching staff who practice other religions
ICE Princess25 [194]

Answer:

d. disparate treatment

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it seems that this scenario best illustrates disparate treatment. This refers to discriminating a potential employee based on any protected characteristic (age, disability, gender reassignment, race, religion or belief, sex, sexual orientation, marriage) even though they are just as suited or qualified as any other candidate or employee.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

8 0
3 years ago
Winston Clinic is evaluating a project that costs $52, 125 and has expected net cash inflows of $12,000 per year for eight years
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

Payback period (years):  4.23  years

NPV: $6,685  

IRR: 16%

MIRR: 14%

The project is financially acceptable because IRR and MIRR is greater than cost of capital

Explanation:

Payback period is calculating the number of year when cash inflow can cover cash outflow (regardless the present value of cash inflow).

As we can easily estimate, cash inflow in 5 year can cover the investment.

Then payback period = 4 years + 12000/52,125 = 4.23 years

We can use excel to calculate NPV, IRR, MIRR in the formula as below

Net present value of project: NPV=(discounting rate, cash outflow, cash inflow) = (12%, -52125,12000,12000......,12000) = $6,685

Internal rate of return: IRR= (cash outflow, cash inflow) = ( -52125,12000,12000,......,12000) = 16%

Modified internal rate of return: MIRR = (cash outflow, cash inflow, IRR, cost of capital) = (-52125,12000,12000......,12000,16%,12%) = 14%

<em>Please see attachment for more details.</em>

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
Expectancy theory implies that linking an increased amount of rewards to performance will increase motivation and performance. F
Tresset [83]

Cognitive evaluation theory would question the use of money as a motivator because external motivational tools may lower intrinsic motivation because people will start working to get the reward, NOT because they are intrinsically motivated or challenged.

4 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2005 Franz Company purchased a truck that cost $22,000. The truck had an expected useful life of 5 years and a $4,
allochka39001 [22]

Answer: The amount of depreciation expense recognized in 2006, using the double declining balance method is $5,280.

And the journal entries required are:

Debit Depreciation expense                     $5,280

Credit Accumulated depreciation             $5,280

Explanation: The double-declining method is otherwise known as reducing balance method. It is usually derived by using the formula below:

Double-declining depreciation = 2 X SLDP X BV

Where SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

           BV = Book value of the asset (Cost minus depreciation)

So using the straight-line depreciation method, we need to remove the salvage value from the cost and then divided by 5 years. That is, ($22,000 - $4,000) / 5 years = $3,060 yearly depreciation expense.

However, under the double-declining method, we need to divide the 100% by the useful life of the asset first to get the SLDP then multiply by 2, that is, 100%/5 years = 20% x 2 = 40%.

So 40% x $22,000 in year 1 (December 31, 2005) is $8,800

In year 2 (December 31, 2006), 40% x $13,200 ($22,000 - $8,800) = $5,280 and so on. The depreciation expense would stop immediately it falls below the salvage value of $4,000.

So the book value of the asset at the end of year 2 is $7,920 ($13,200 - $4,000 accumulated depreciation).

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Palmona Co. establishes a $200 petty cash fund on January 1. On January 8, the fund shows $38 in cash along with receipts for th
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

Date                    Explanation             Debit       Credit

January 1            Petty Cash               $200

                           Cash                                          $200

Explanation:

Step 1: Journal Entries to Establish the Fund on January 1

Date                    Explanation             Debit       Credit

January 1            Petty Cash               $200

                           Cash                                          $200

Being the establishment of petty cash fund

Step 2: Preparing Journal Entries to reimburse funds on January 8

Date                    Explanation             Debit       Credit

January 8            Postage                   $74

                            Transportation        $29

                            Delivery                   $16

                            Miscellaneous         $43

                           Cash                                          $162

Being the reimbursement of Petty Cash Fund.

Petty Cash is usually a fund established by an organisation to take care of day to day expenses. At the end of a period or at the exhaustion of the fund, an account is given and then the amount spent is reimbursed.

7 0
3 years ago
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