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valentinak56 [21]
3 years ago
11

Explain when it is better to use a 20% off coupon and when it is better to use a $20 off coupon.

Mathematics
1 answer:
VladimirAG [237]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

It's better to use 20% when the total is over $100.  It's better to use $20 off coupon when the total is less than $100.  

Step-by-step explanation:


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HELP ME PLEASE!!!!!!​
AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

There ya go

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Fine the surface of one yard.<br><br>please help .-.
ale4655 [162]

Answer:

1) 34 square meters

2) 21 square yards

Step-by-step explanation:

1) 7x4=28

1/2x3x2x2=6

28+6= 34 square meters

2)3x3=9

1/2x3x2x4=12

9+12= 21 square yards

6 0
2 years ago
The step function f(x) is graphed.<br>What is the value of f(0)?<br>-2<br>-1<br>0<br>1
yarga [219]

Answer:

The value of f(0) is Option (A) : - 2

5 0
3 years ago
Maggie is practicing her penalty kicks for her upcoming soccer game. During the practice, she attempts 10 penalty kicks. If each
arlik [135]

Answer:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176  

P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072  

P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013  

And adding we got:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.65)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

For this case we want to find this probability:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176  

P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072  

P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013  

And adding we got:

P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262

5 0
3 years ago
I don't understand the first one.
Mekhanik [1.2K]
No the 6 times 8 is 48 and the 9 times 12 is 108
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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