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NNADVOKAT [17]
3 years ago
7

ABCD is rectangle on a coordinate grid with side AB parallel to side CD. Side BC is perpendicular to AB. The slip of AB is 3/4.

what is the slope of BC?
Mathematics
1 answer:
dybincka [34]3 years ago
6 0

The slope of BC is \frac{-4}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us revise some notes about slopes of lines

  • If two lines are parallel, then their slopes are equal
  • If to lines are perpendicular, then the product of their slopes is -1, that means if the slope of one is m, then the slope of the other is \frac{-1}{m}

∵ ABCD is a rectangle

∵ AB // CD

∴ The slope of AB = the slope of CD

∵ BC ⊥ AB

∴ The slope of BC × the slope of AB = -1

∵ The slope of AB = \frac{3}{4}

- To find the slope of BC reciprocal the slope of AB and reverse its sign

∴ The slope of BC = \frac{-4}{3}

The slope of BC is \frac{-4}{3}

Learn more:

You can learn more about the slope in brainly.com/question/9801816

#LearnwithBrainly

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Her change will be $16.22 since 20 +20 is 40 and 40 - 23.78 is 16.22
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Find the measure of a.
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

50 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that an inscribed angle in a circle is 1/2 the arc that it inscribes. So, therefore the arc is inscribed by the 25 degrees is 50. Assuming that the center of the circle is O, the center angle will be the arc measure. Knowing this, angle a is 50 degrees. If you're curious about all these theorems, they can be proved using similar triangles.

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Suppose a manufacturer finds that 95% of their production is normal but the final 5% has one or more flaws. Each flawed good has
RUDIKE [14]

Answer:

1)    

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW        0.01             0.95

2) 0.04 and $0.04

3) 0.025 and $0.025

4) 0.015 and $0.015

5) 0.95 and $0.95

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that;

financial cost = $1

p(flaw) = 0.05  

p(type 1 flaw / flaw) = 80% = 0.8

p(type 2 flaw / flaw) = 50% = 0.5

p( type 1 and 2 flaw/flaw) = 30% = 0.30

1) Bivariate Table

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

p( only 1 flow) = 0.04 - 0.015 = 0.025

p( only 2 flow) =  0.025 - 0.015 = 0.01

THEREFORE  the Bivariate Table;

FLAW                         TYPE2         NO TYPE2 FLAW

TYPE1                         0.015           0.025

NO TYPE1 FLAW       0.01              0.95

2) probability and expectations of type 1 flaw?

p( type 1 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 1 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.8 = 0.04

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.04 = $0.04

3)  probability and expectation of Type 2 flaw

p( type 2 flaw) = p(flaw) × p(type 2 flaw/flaw)  = 0.05 × 0.5 = 0.025

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 × 0.025 = $0.025

4) probability and expectations of Type 1 and 2 flaws

p( type 1 and 2 flaw) =  p(flow) × p( type 1 & 2 flaw/flaw) = 0.05 × 0.3 = 0.015

Expected financial cost to the firm per good = $1 * 0.015 = $0.015

5) probability and expectations of no flaws?

Probability of no flaw = P(No flaw) =95% =  0.95

Expected financial cost saved the firm per good due to no flaw

= $1 × 0.95 = $0.95

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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