<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>
1. MC = Cost of raw material + Cost of time
MC = 5 plus (10 divide by 2)
MC = $10
2. TFC = $300
Q = 300
, AFC = TFC/Q = 300 divide by 300 = $1
3. His profit maximizing output would be higher
Reason: P = MR = $15
, MC = $10
Since MR > MC, and at the profit maximizing point MR = MC, it is better for Nicholas to increase his output.
4. His profit maximizing output would be higher
Reason: P = MR = $15
, MC = $4 + $5 = $9
Since MR > MC, and at the profit maximizing point MR = MC, it is better for Nicholas to increase his output.
Answer:
depreciation expense 2017 = $180,000
depreciation expense 2018 = $144,000
depreciation expense 2019 = $115,200
Explanation:
purchase cost $900,000
estimated useful life 10 years
depreciation expense using double declining method = 2 x regular straight method depreciation rate x purchase cost
depreciation expense 2017 = 2 x 1/10 x $900,000 = $180,000
depreciation expense 2018 = 2 x 1/10 x $720,000 = $144,000
depreciation expense 2019 = 2 x 1/10 x $576,000 = $115,200
Answer:
$1.07
Explanation:
The marginal cost measures the change in total cost of adding on more worker divided by the change in product for this additional worker (marginal product of labor). When adding one more worker, costs will increase by $80 (wage rate), while product will increase by 75. Therefore, the marginal cost is:
The marginal cost is $1.07.
<h3>
Answer:</h3><h3>Tranche A interest $50m*9%*3/12 $1,125,000 </h3><h3>Tranche B interest $100m*10%*3/12 $2,500,000 </h3><h3>Tranche C interest $50m*11%*3/12 $1,375,000</h3><h3>Principal balances:</h3><h3>Tranche A $47 million</h3><h3>Tranche B $100 million</h3><h3>Tranche C $50 million</h3><h3 /><h3 /><h3>Explanation:</h3><h3>The approach in debts securitization is that the most senior tranche,tranche A in this question receives any payment received in excess of periodic payment of interest.</h3><h3>On that basis,the quarterly payments can be shared between the three tranches as follows:</h3><h3>Total quarterly payment received $8000,000</h3><h3>Tranche A interest $50m*9%*3/12 ($1,125,000) </h3><h3>Tranche B interest $100m*10%*3/12 ($2,500,000) </h3><h3>Tranche C interest $50m*11%*3/12 ($1,375,000) </h3><h3>Balance left $3,000,000</h3><h3>As earlier reiterated, the balance of $3 million would be used to redeem part of tranche A,hence in tranche A is $47 million($50m-$3m):</h3><h3>Principal balances:</h3><h3>Tranche A $47 million</h3><h3>Tranche B $100 million</h3><h3>Tranche C $50 million</h3>
Pn = P0(1+r)∧n
Pnis future value of P0
P0 is original amount invested
r is the rate of interest
n is the number of compounding periods (years, months, etc.)
P(n) = 2250(1+(.03/4)∧8
** since the interest is compounding quarterly, you need to divide the rate by 4, the number of quarters in a year.
Then you would do the math.
