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DaniilM [7]
3 years ago
5

Can someone help me pls

Mathematics
1 answer:
qaws [65]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:Example1: 2 and 2 1/2

The mark that is closest to the right end of the glue stick is for 2 1/2 inches.

Answer on last part is 2 1/2 inches

Example 2: 1 2/4 and 1 3/4

The mark that is closest to the right end of the paper clip is for 1 3/4

Answer on last part is 1 3/4

Step-by-step explanation: the ruler is split into halves and fourths between the whole numbers the longer lines are halves shorter are fourths.

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Answer:

Option (2)

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 1 is represented by a solid point on a number line.

x > 1 is represented by an arrow starting from x = 1 towards infinity

If we mix both the properties, x ≥ will be represented by an arrow starting from a solid point at x = 1 and moving towards the values greater than one.

From the options given,

Arrow mentioned in Option (2) will be the correct representation of the inequality.

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2 years ago
The proper natation for a normal distribution with a mean of 250 and a standard deviation of 25 is?
Zolol [24]
N(250,25)
That's all it is
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3 years ago
Write the formula for the perimeter of a rectangle.Then substitute 12in for the length and 6in for the width solve the equation
Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let L represent the Length of the rectangle.

Let W represent the width of the rectangle.

The formula for determining the perimeter of a rectangle is expressed as

Perimeter = 2(L + W)

Then substitute 12 in for the length and 6in for the width. It becomes.

Perimeter = 2(12 + 6).

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3 0
3 years ago
Plz help what do i do and how do i do this its due tomorrow
Aleks [24]
In order to find the area, you multiply the width (7), height (6) and length (12). But the problem states that the height has changed from 6 to 6 minus3, which would be 3. So you multiply 3, 7, and 12.
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2 years ago
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ella [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

each combination of 2 specific numbers has the same probability. there is no difference in probability between the individual numbers.

remember, a probability is always desired cases over all possible cases.

we have 4 different possible outcomes every time we spin the spinner.

to get a specific number has the probability of 1/4, because we want 1 specific outcome, and have in total 4 different possibilities.

now, we spin a second time. the probability to get a specific number is again 1/4.

but, if we consider both events to be connected, when we want to know the probability to get 2 specific numbers when spinning twice, we have to multiply the individual probabilities :

1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16

so, the probability to land first on a 5, and then secondly on a 2 is 1/16.

the same as for landing first on a 3, and then on a 5.

the same as for landing first on a 4, and then on a 4 (again).

that is because the individual spin results are independent. the result of the first spin does not impact in any way the result of the second spin (in contrary to e.g. pulling multiple cards without returning the previously pulled cards).

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2 years ago
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