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kenny6666 [7]
3 years ago
8

Corner Jewelers, Inc. recently analyzed the project whose cash flows are shown below. However, before the company decided to acc

ept or reject the project, the Federal Reserve changed interest rates and therefore the firm's cost of capital (r). The Fed's action did not affect the forecasted cash flows. By how much did the change in the r affect the project's forecasted NPV? Note that a project's expected NPV can be negative, in which case it should be rejected.Old r: 8.00% New r: 11.25%Year 0 1 2 3Cash flows −$1,000 $410 $410 $410a. −$59.03b. −$56.08c. −$53.27d. −$50.61e. −$48.08
Business
1 answer:
andreev551 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

correct option is a. −$59.03

Explanation:

given data

Old cost of capital (r)   8.00%        New cost of capital (r)  11.25%

year                                 0                1                                     2                  3

cash flow                        -$1000       $410                              $410        $410

solution

we know that here old cost of capital (r) NPV will be

old cost of capital (r) NPV = cash flow 0 year + cash flow × \frac{1-(1+rate)^{-time}}{rate}

put here value

old cost of capital (r) NPV = -1000 + 410 × \frac{1-(1+0.08)^{-3}}{0.08}

old cost of capital (r) NPV = $56.61

and

new cost of capital (r) NPV will be

new cost of capital (r) NPV = cash flow 0 year + cash flow × \frac{1-(1+rate)^{-time}}{rate}

put here value

new cost of capital (r) NPV = -1000 + 410 × \frac{1-(1+0.1125)^{-3}}{0.1125}

new cost of capital (r) NPV = -$2.42

so difference is

Difference = -$2.42 - $56.61

Difference = -$59.03

so correct option is a. −$59.03

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For a given level of inflation, if a rise in the stock market makes consumers more willing to spend (the wealth effect), then th
professor190 [17]

Answer:

aggregate demand curve; right

Explanation:

Inflation can be regarded as

when the level of price of goods/service increases for consumer to buy, it can be measured as a result of change in price. There are four types of level of inflation which are creeping, walking as well as galloping, and hyperinflation, which are measured base on speed. It should be noted that For a given level of inflation, if a rise in the stock market makes consumers more willing to spend (the wealth effect), then the aggregate demand curve shift right

4 0
3 years ago
Texas Oil Company (TOC) paid $3,000,000 for an oil reserve estimated to hold 50,000 barrels of oil. Oil production is expected t
IrinaK [193]

Answer: Please see answer below

Explanation:

<u>Oil Reserve </u>$3,000,000 for year 1, 2, 3

<u> Accumulated Depletion </u>

Year 1 = $3,000,000/50,000 X 10,000= $600,000

Year 2 = 3,000,000/50,000 X 30,000+600,000=$2,400,000

Year 3 =3,000,000/50,000 X 10,000+ 2,400,000= $3,000,000

<u>Oil Reserve</u>

Year 1 =$3000000- $600,000=$2,400,000

Year 2, $3,000,000- $2,400,000=$600,000

Year 3= $3,000,000 -$3, 000,000=$0

<u>Net Oil Inventory</u>

Year 1= $600,000

Year 2 $2,400,000

Year 3= $3,000,000

                                          Year 1          Year 2         Year 3

Oil Reserve        $3,000,000          $3,000,000      $3,000,000

Accumulated Depletion $600,000   $2,400,000     $3,000,000

Oil Reserve,               $2,400,000             $600,000         $0

Net Oil Inventory      $600,000        $2,400,000     $3,000,000

4 0
4 years ago
A stock has a beta of 1.28, the expected return on the market is 12 percent, and the risk-free rate is 4.5 percent. What must th
monitta

Answer:

The expected return=17.78 percent

Explanation:

Step 1: Determine risk free rate, beta and market risk premium

risk free rate=4.5%

beta=1.28

market risk premium/return on market=12%

Step 2: Express the formula for expected return

The expected return can be expressed as follows;

ER=RFR+(B×EMR)

where;

ER-expected return

RFR=risk free rate

B=beta

EMR=expected market return

replacing with the values in step 1;

ER=(4.5)+(1.28×12)

ER=4.5+13.28

ER=17.78

The expected return=17.78 percent

5 0
3 years ago
Harrangue Company's standard variable overhead rate is $6 per direct labor hour, and each unit requires 2 standard direct labor
Lorico [155]

Answer:

Total variable overhead variance is express = 2,200

Explanation:

given data

overhead rate = $6 per direct labor hour

actual direct labor hours = 6,000

actual variable overhead costs = $37,000

product manufactured = 2,900 units

to find out

total variable overhead variance

solution

we find here standard variable overhead that is

standard variable overhead = 2900 unit ×  $6 × 2 DL hours

standard variable overhead = $34,800

and

Total variable overhead variance is express as

Total variable overhead variance is express  = actual variable overhead - standard variable overhead

so

Total variable overhead variance is express = 37,000 - 34,800

Total variable overhead variance is express = 2,200

7 0
4 years ago
The Investments Fund sells Class A shares with a front-end load of 5% and Class B shares with 12b-1 fees of 0.75% annually as we
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer:

The responses to the given choices can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

Assume is the investment. Each original Class A investment is of the net-front unburden. The portfolio will be worth four years from now:  

\$1,000 \times 5\% = \$50 =\$1,000 - \$50 = \$950\\\\         \$950 (1 + 0.13)^4 = \$950 (1.13)^4 = \$950 (1.630474) = \$1,548.95\\\\  

You will place the total of \$1,000 on class B shares, but only 12b-1will be paid (13-0.75 = 12.25) at a rate of 12.25\% and you'll pay a 1\%back-end load charge if you sell for a four-year period.

After 4 years, your portfolio worth would be:      

\$1,000 (1 + 0.1225)^4 = \$1,437.66   \\\\      \$1,000 (1.1225)^4 = \$1000 (1.587616) = \$ 1,587.62  

Their portfolio worth would be: after charging the backend load fee:      

\$1,587.616 \times 0.99 = \$1,571.74   \\\\                     Amounts     \\\\     Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,548.95\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \     1,571.74 \\\\

When the horizon is four years, class B shares are also the best option.

Class A shares would value from a 12-year time frame:

\$950 (1.13)^{12} = \$950 (4.334523) = \$4,117.80  \\\\

In this case, no back-end load is required for Class B securities as the horizon is larger than 5 years.

Its value of the class B shares, therefore, is as follows:

\$1,000 (1.1225) 12 = \$1,000 (4.001623) = \$4,001.62 \\\\Amounts    \\\\\      Class A \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 4,117.80\\\\          Class B \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \   4,001.62\\\\

Class B shares aren't any longer a valid option in this, prolonged duration. Its impact on class B fees of 0.75\%\ \ 12b-1cumulates over a period and eventually outweighs the 5\% the burden of class A shareholders.

4 0
3 years ago
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