1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Olenka [21]
3 years ago
9

Which shows the list of numbers in order from least to greatest?

Mathematics
1 answer:
leonid [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: A

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
Due at 11:59 P.M. Desperate
pantera1 [17]

Answer: Your answer should be A.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Which properties were used to simplify the following expression? Select all that apply.
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

A P of Addition

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How to write (0,8] as an inequality
larisa86 [58]
Answer: 0 \ \textless \  x \le 8

What is given to you is interval notation. We have the interval start at 0 and end at 8. The value 0 is not included in the interval as indicated by the parenthesis. So we go with a "less than" sign (instead of a "less than or equal to" sign)

The value 8 is included since a square bracket is used here. The use of "or equal to" is needed to make sure the endpoint 8 is included.

So x can be any number between 0 and 8. It can't be 0 but it can be 8. 
3 0
3 years ago
If students’ scores were normally distributed and the mean was 200 with a standard deviation of 40, then what is the probability
Sonja [21]

Answer:

  84%

Step-by-step explanation:

The empirical rule tells you that 68% of the standard normal distribution is within 1 standard deviation of the mean. The distribution is symmetrical, so the amount in the lower tail is (1 -68%)/2 = 16%.

Since the number you're interested in, 240, is one standard deviation above the mean (200 +40), the percentage of interest is the sum of the area of the central part of the distribution along with the lower tail:

  68% + 16% = 84%.

4 0
3 years ago
If 1 mile is equal to 1.61 kilometers, how many kilometers are there in 50 miles
Alik [6]

kilometers and miles are units used to measure distance.

1 mile is equal to 1.61 km

so if 1 mile is equivalent to 1.61 km

then to see how many kilometers are there in 50 miles we have to multiply 50 miles by 1.61 km/mile

therefore the number of km in miles is - 50 miles x 1.61 km/mile = 80.5 km

distance in km - 80.5 km

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Can anyone give me some questions for algebra 1
    11·1 answer
  • Which fraction is equivalent to 0.16 the 6 is repeating<br>. Please show the work .
    13·2 answers
  • Lisa knit 3/12 foot of a scarf on Saturday. She knit 8/12 foot of a scarf on Sunday.
    15·1 answer
  • (5.78×10^-3)+(8×10^-4)
    7·1 answer
  • Sharon has some one-dollar bills and some five-dollar bills. she has 14 bills. the value of the bills is $30.
    9·1 answer
  • Find the area of a semi circle with a diameter of 8
    5·1 answer
  • Dl Ana recibió (2 7 + 3√63 kg de cierta mercaderia
    7·1 answer
  • Which best explains why these two figures are similar or not similar?Which best explains why these two figures are similar or no
    6·1 answer
  • Pls help extra points and mark brainlist
    14·2 answers
  • This question is about fractions,decimals and percentage​
    9·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!