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Juliette [100K]

3 years ago

12

Each calendar will sell for $5 each write an equatio to model the total income for selling calendars

1 answer:

Brrunno [24]3 years ago

4 0

To answer the question above, I let x be the number of calendars sold. You may use any other letter as this is just for representation. The total income generated in selling calendars is calculated by multiplying the number of calendars with the price. That is,
total income = 5x
If we let total income be y, our equation is further simplified into,
y = 5x

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Explain how knowing 50×4 = 200 helps you find 500 × 400

Leto [7]

Well, 50 x 4 = 200, so just keep adding 0's!

50 x 4= 200

50 x 40 = 2,000

50 x 400 = 20,000

500 x 400 = 200,000

<em>Hope helps!-Aparri</em>

3 0

3 years ago

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Alekssandra [29.7K]

Explanation:

First, we need to find the values of the sine and cosine of x knowing the value of tan x and x being in the 3rd quadrant. Since tan x = 5/12, using Pythagorean theorem, we know that

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Note that both sine and cosine are negative because x is in the 3rd quadrant.

Recall the addition identities listed below:

$\sin(\alpha + \beta) = \sin\alpha\sin\beta + \cos\alpha\cos\beta$

$\Rightarrow \sin(180+x) = \sin180\sin x + \cos180\cos x$

$\;\;\;\;\;\;= -\sin x = \dfrac{5}{13}$

$\cos(\alpha - \beta) = \cos\alpha \cos\beta + \sin\alpha \sin\beta$

$\Rightarrow \cos(180 - x) = \cos180\cos x + \sin180\sin x$

$\;\;\;\;\;\;=-\cos x = \dfrac{12}{13}$

$\tan(\alpha - \beta) = \dfrac{\tan\alpha - \tan\beta}{1 + \tan\alpha\tan\beta}$

$\Rightarrow \tan(360 - x) = \dfrac{\tan 360 - \tan x}{1 + \tan 360 \tan x}$

$\;\;\;\;\;\;= -\tan x = -\dfrac{5}{12}$

Therefore, the expression reduces to

$\sin(180+x) + \tan(360-x) + \frac{1}{\cos(180-x)}$

$\;\;\;\;\;= \left(\dfrac{5}{13}\right) + \left(\dfrac{5}{12}\right) + \dfrac{1}{\left(\frac{12}{13}\right)}$

$\;\;\;\;\;= \dfrac{49}{26}$

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2 years ago

Find the value of x for which m parallel to n

s344n2d4d5 [400]

3x - 36 + 2x + 26 = 180
5x - 10 = 180
5x = 180 + 10
5x = 190
x = 190/5
x = 38 <==

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3 years ago

A large container holds 4 gallons of chocolate milk that has to be poured into 1-pint bottles. If the ratio of gallons to pints

MrMuchimi

Seen 4 gallons are being turned into pints it easy just need to do 4x8 which = 32 because 1 gallons = 8 pints!

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bulgar [2K]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

I just did this and its right!

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