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alexandr402 [8]
2 years ago
7

What is the area of this tile?

Mathematics
2 answers:
zzz [600]2 years ago
5 0

12 in. ²

a = bh

a = 2 x 6

a = 12 in. ²

tankabanditka [31]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

12 in. ^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a rectangle can be found by using the formula legnth x width.

Here the legnth is 2 in. and the width is 6 in.

6 x 2 = 12

Whenever you find the area, unit of measurement is ^2, thus resulting in the answer 12 in. ^2

I hope this helps!

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I need help asappppppppppppp
svetoff [14.1K]

Answer: Choice [D] - "power of a power" ✅

Step-by-step explanation:

Hii, do you need to know which law you should use to simplify \sf\bigg(x^4\bigg)^9?

No problem!

The law we will use here is "power of a power".

What "power of powers" means is we raise a power to a power, which is exactly what we do here: We raise x^4 to the power of 9. To simplify our expression, we multiply the powers. (\boldsymbol{4\cdot9})

So the right answer is: Choice [D] - "Power of a power"

The simplified answer is \LARGE\boldsymbol{x^{4\cdot9}=x^{36}}

Voila! There's our answer, cheers!

--

Hope that this helped! Best wishes.

\it Reach\;far.\;Aim\;high.\;Dream\;big.}

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7 0
1 year ago
The Hu family goes out for lunch, and the price of the meal is $58. The sales tax on the meal is 7%, and the family also leaves
Alexxx [7]

58  plus tip of .20  

so

58 times 0.2 = 11.6 is the tip

now we add tax (Presuming we son't tax the tip)

58 times 0.07 = 4.06 the tax

so its

58 + 11.6  + 4.06  = $73.66 total cost


8 0
2 years ago
Explain how to model the division of –20 by –5 on a number line.
djyliett [7]

Answer:

Yes bbtbtbt B

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose the odds against winning the lottery as 48,000,000 to 1. What is the probability of the event of winning the lottery giv
kupik [55]

The probability according to the given scenario will be "\frac{1}{48,000,001}".

According to the question:

  • The odds against winning the lottery are 48,000,000 to 1.
  • Favorable outcome = 1

→ The total outcome will be:

= 48,000,000 +1

= 48,000,001

As we know,

→ P(E) = \frac{Favorable \ outcomes}{Total \ outcomes}

By putting the values, we get

→           =\frac{1}{48,000,001}

Thus the above response is right.

Learn more about Probability here:

brainly.com/question/15739211

8 0
2 years ago
What is -2 1/2+1 1/2​
eduard
The correct answer is -1
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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