Answer:
mDF = 90°
(Assuming arc mCE is 5x + 10)
Step-by-step explanation:
When we have two chords crossing in a circle, there is a property where the angle in the cross point is equal half the sum of the corresponding arcs.
So in this case, we have:
70° = (mCE + mDF)/2
Assuming mCE is 5x + 10, we have:
70 = (5x + 10 + 11x + 2)/2
70 = (16x + 12)/2
70 = 8x + 6
8x = 64
x = 8
So the arc mDF is:
mDF = 11x + 2 = 11 * 8 + 2 = 90°
<h2>Evaluating Composite Functions</h2><h3>
Answer:</h3>

<h3>
Step-by-step explanation:</h3>
We can write how
will be defined but that's too much work and it's only useful when we are evaluating
with many inputs.
First let's solve for
first. As you read through this answer, you'll get the idea of what I'm doing.
Given:

Solving for
:

Now we can solve for
, since
,
.
Given:

Solving for
:

Now we are can solve for
. By now you should get the idea why
.
Given:

Solving for
:

Answer:
Option C
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given a coefficient matrix along and not the solution matrix
Since solution matrix is not given we cannot check for infinity solutions.
But we can check whether coefficient matrix is 0 or not
If coefficient matrix is zero, the system is inconsistent and hence no solution.
Option A)
|A|=![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}4&2&6\\2&1&3\\-2&3&-4\end{array}\right] =0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D4%262%266%5C%5C2%261%263%5C%5C-2%263%26-4%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%3D0)
since II row is a multiple of I row
Hence no solution or infinite
OPtion B
|B|=![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}2&0&-2\\-7&1&5\\4&-2&0\end{array}\right] \\=2(10)-2(10)=0](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D2%260%26-2%5C%5C-7%261%265%5C%5C4%26-2%260%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5C%5C%3D2%2810%29-2%2810%29%3D0)
Hence no solution or infinite
Option C
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc}6&0&-2\\-2&0&6\\1&-2&0\end{array}\right] \\=2(36-2)=68](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7D6%260%26-2%5C%5C-2%260%266%5C%5C1%26-2%260%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5C%5C%3D2%2836-2%29%3D68)
Hence there will be a unique solution
Option D
=0
(since I row is -5 times III row)
Hence there will be no or infinite solution
Option C is the correct answer
Answer:
b₁ = (2a – b₂h)/h; b₁ = (2a)/h – b₂; h = (2a)/(b₁ + b₂)
Step-by-step explanation:
A. <em>Solve for b₁
</em>
a = ½(b₁ + b₂)h Multiply each side by 2
2a = (b₁ + b₂)h Remove parentheses
2a = b₁h + b₂h Subtract b₂h from each side
2a - b₂h = b₁h Divide each side by h
b₁ = (2a – b₂h)/h Remove parentheses
b₁ = (2a)/h – b₂
B. <em>Solve for h
</em>
2a = (b₁ + b₂)h Divide each side by (b₁ + b₂)
h = (2a)/(b₁ + b₂)