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tester [92]
3 years ago
12

TB MC Qu. 9-291 Kartman Corporation makes a product with ... Kartman Corporation makes a product with the following standard cos

ts: Standard Quantity or Hours Standard Price or Rate Standard Cost Per Unit Direct materials 8.2 pounds $ 8.70 per pound $ 71.34 Direct labor 0.3 hours $ 41.00 per hour $ 12.30 Variable overhead 0.3 hours $ 5.70 per hour $ 1.71 In June the company's budgeted production was 5,100 units but the actual production was 5,200 units. The company used 23,850 pounds of the direct material and 2,460 direct labor-hours to produce this output. During the month, the company purchased 27,100 pounds of the direct material at a cost of $187,180. The actual direct labor cost was $58,721 and the actual variable overhead cost was $13,331. The company applies variable overhead on the basis of direct labor-hours. The direct materials purchases variance is computed when the materials are purchased. The variable overhead rate variance for June is:
Business
1 answer:
Lostsunrise [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance= $688.8 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Variable overhead 0.3 hours $5.70 per hour

The company used 2,460 direct labor-hours to produce this output. The actual variable overhead cost was $13,331.

<u>To calculate the variable overhead rate variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance= (standard rate - actual rate)* actual quantity

Actual rate= 13,331/2,460= $5.42

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance= (5.7 - 5.42)*2,460

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance= $688.8 favorable

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Bob has a $50,000 stock portfolio with a beta of 1.2, an expected return of 10.8%, and a standard deviation of 25%. Becky also h
4vir4ik [10]

Answer:

Combined Beta =  1

Combined return = 10%

Explanation:

given data

stock portfolio = $50,000

beta = 1.2

expected return = 10.8%

beta = 0.8

expected return = 9.2%

standard deviation = 25%

to find out

combination

solution

we get here first Combined Beta that is express as

Combined Beta = 1.2 × 50% + 0.8 × 50%

Combined Beta =  1

and

Combined return will be here

Combined return = 10.8 × 50% + 9.2 × 50%

Combined return = 10%

5 0
3 years ago
Select all examples of non-market distribution methods.
Lelu [443]
°first-come/first-served (i.e., vaccines)

°sharing equally (i.e., food distribution)

°weight (i.e. based on percentage of population)

°merit (i.e., contests)

°random (i.e., contests)




3 0
3 years ago
Rock Solid Concrete Company does not offer customers a cash discount for early payment of their accounts receivable. As a result
eimsori [14]

Answer:

Time value of money

Explanation:

The reason is that the money invested today worth more tomorrow. If we have option to pay our supplier $5m after a year is more suitable option than paying him today. The reason is that the amount paid today will be worth $5m but if we pay our supplier after a year then in real terms we have paid the supplier less because money lost its worth by certain percentage during the year. So paying late makes the liability cheaper required their are no interest or other costs.

3 0
3 years ago
ACME Drilling is evaluating an offshore oil-drilling platform for possible impairment. The company estimates the following: book
alekssr [168]

Answer:

ACME Drilling should record impairment loss of $6.9 million

Explanation:

According to GAAP, when the fair value of an asset is below the net carrying amount of that asset ( Asset's historical cost - Asset's accumulated depreciation or the net book value of the asset), the Company should record it as asset impairment loss.

In ACME's case, the net book value is $18.6 million while the estimated fair value is only $11.7 million meaning that the platform is actually worth less than it is recorded on ACME's book. Thus, an impairment loss of $6.9 million should be recorded ( $18.6 million - $11.7 million) to realize the fair value of the oil-drilling platform.

The sum of projected sum of future cash flows in this case is not suitable to be used to determine the oil-drilling platform because it has not been discounted to the present value amount, and also, it is not appropriate under GAAP.

6 0
3 years ago
Daffy Duct, Inc. issued 10,000 shares of no-par value common stock at $10 per share. Miss Hap, the bookkeeper, recorded the tran
Westkost [7]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

When a company issues shares, ‘cash’ is debited because money has come into the firm (debit means addition). ‘Equity’ is credited however because it is money the business is owing to the business owners (credit means negative)

Equity is always a credit balance when new shares are issued. It means the business is owing more to the business owners.

Note that Equity is a credit balance (in negative position) while Asset is a debit balance (positive)

In our case, we have added more business owners by getting more money to the business to the tune of $100,000. We will therefore credit equity by -$100,000). Since money came in, we also debit cash by adding an equivalent +$100,000.  

The entry is therefore balanced and correct!

8 0
3 years ago
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