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blondinia [14]
3 years ago
15

Historically foreclosure was a last resort for individuals that own homes. However, in some states people can voluntarily give u

p their home to their mortgage lender and escape from any further potential liability to continue to pay the mortgage. This in particular is common in situations where the home is worth significantly less than what is remaining on the mortgage. Should this be allowed or should people still have to pay the difference between what their lender is able to get for the home if they foreclose on it and what was remaining on the mortgage?
Business
1 answer:
Elena-2011 [213]3 years ago
5 0
Hello, yes it's actually common for people to give up their home to avoid further payment only if their lender agrees and allows that to happen. But of course, the remaining balance (the difference of the house value and what's left of the mortgage) must be paid. Walking away from an underwater mortgage can seriously affect that person's financial future and by extent his/her relationship with the community. His/Her credit score will go down with this, it may be difficult for him/her to qualify for another mortgage in the future. Another reason is that - in most states, it is completely legal for lenders to go after the difference (deficiency) because technically they own that and have rights to it.
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kondaur [170]

Answer:

a. buyers of the good will bear most of the burden of the tax.

Explanation:

When a tax is imposed on a good for which the supply is relatively elastic and the demand is relatively inelastic, buyers or consumers of the good will bear most of the burden of the tax.

However, when tax is imposed on a good whose supply is relatively inelastic and the demand for the goods is relatively elastic, the producers or sellers would be responsible for the tax burden of the goods.

Generally, tax revenues are larger with respect to the inelasticity of demand and supply.

4 0
4 years ago
On January 1, Mountbatten Corporation paid $18,000 for a year's advance rent on a building and recorded it as Rent Expense. The
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

b. a credit to rent expense for $13,500

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Since there is an advance rent for $18,000 on Jan 1 and the adjusting entry would be made on March 31

So, the amount would be

= $18,000 - $18,000 × 3 months ÷ 12 months

= $18,000 - $4,500

= $13,500

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Hence, the second option is correct

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3 years ago
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Learn more about market prices brainly.com/question/14092409

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1 year ago
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8 0
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