Answer:
1 and 3 I think
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Yes, the quotient will be the same
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
If the numerator and denominator of a fraction be both multiplied by the same number, the quotient will not be altered
Because is the same that you multiply the fraction by 1, and remember that when you multiply by 1, you always get your original number

therefore
Yes, the quotient will be the same
can you maybe write down the questions on my comment in here?