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cupoosta [38]
3 years ago
5

Why is this answer right? Please explain.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nadya [2.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

because you divide them by two


Step-by-step explanation:


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Step-by-step explanation:

Given that there is a function of x,

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f"(\pi/4)

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c)

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are points of inflection.

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