Answer:
The thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the pin code on the first try.
Explanation:
Simply, if the ATM card has a 3-digit code that can be repeated, and the board has 9 numbers (for example, from 1 to 9), we must start from the smallest number that could be formed with these numbers to the highest number that these numbers could also compose, which in the case would be 111 and 999. Then, 889 different numbers could be formed (it is the distance between 111 and 999), with which the possibility of hitting the key to the first attempt would be 1 in 889 times, or 1/889.
To take the probability to a percentage, we must know that 889 / 8.89 gives 100. Therefore, dividing 1 / 8.89 we will know the percentage of probabilities of hitting the key on the first attempt: 1 / 8.89 = 0.11.
This shows us that the thief has a 0.11% probability of hitting the key on the first try.
Answer:
$480
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Machine Hours Repair Costs
2,400 $6,385
1,200 $3,480
2,000 $5,285
3,400 $8,980
Now,
Machine Hours Repair Costs
Highest 3,400 $8,980
Lowest 1,200 $3,480
Difference 2,200 $5,500
Unit variable cost = $5,500 ÷ 2,200
= $2.5
Total cost at high level = $8,980
Machine hours highest level = 3,400
Also,
Total cost at high level = Fixed cost + Variable cost at highest level
or
$8,980 = Fixed cost + [ $2.5 × 3,400 ]
or
Fixed cost = $8,980 - [ $2.5 × 3,400 ]
= $8,980 - $8,500
= $480
Answer:
$1.45
Explanation:
First of all we need to know what is earnings available to common shareholders (EACS).
EACS is the part of earnings which is available to common shareholders after deducting preference dividend from net income after taxes.
We can understand the as follows
Net Profit after taxes $ xxxx
Less: Preference dividend (xxxx)
Earnings available to.common shareholders xxxx
From this amount is we divide number of common stocks / shares, we will get Earnings Per Share (EPS)
EPS = Earnings available to equity shareholders / number of common stock shares
Dividend Payout Ration to common stock (given) = 20%
It means the comapny is paying 20% of EPS to common stock holders and 80% of EPS is tthe retained earnings of the company
Hence dividend to common stockholder = Earnings available.to common shareholders × dividend payout ratio
= $7.25 × 20%
= $1.45
$1.45 is the dividend which company pay to common shareholders
Question
you are a consultant to a firm evaluating an expansion of its current business. The cash flow forecasts (in millions of dollar) for the project as follows:
Year cashflow
0 -100
1-10 15
0n the basis of the behavior of the firm's stock, you believe that the beta of the firm is 1.30. Assuming that the rate of return available on risk-free investments is 5% and that the expected rate of return on the market portfolio is 15% what is the net present value of the project
Answer:
NPV= -$32.58
Explanation:
The net present value of the investment is the cash inflow from the investment discounted at required rate of return. The required rate of return can be determined using the the formula below:
Ke= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)
Ke =? , Rf- 5%,, Rm-15%, β- 1.30
Ke=5% + 1.30× (15-5)= 18%
The NPV = Present value of cash inflow - initial cost
= A×(1-(1+r)^(-10)/r - initial cost
A- 15, r-18%
NPV = 15× (1-1.18^(-10)/0.18 - 100= -32.58
NPV = -$32.58
