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lina2011 [118]
3 years ago
11

Which of these strategies would eliminate a variable in the system of equations? ​8x+8y=2 8x+5y=1 ​ Add the equations. (Choice B

) B Subtract the bottom equation from the top equation. (Choice C) C Multiply the top equation by 1/2,then subtract the bottom equation from the top equation.
Mathematics
2 answers:
harkovskaia [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B. Subtract the bottom equation from the top equation.

Step-by-step explanation:

When looking at the two equations:

8x + 8y = 2

8x + 5y = 1

We can easily get rid of the x variable by subtracting the two equations from each other since the terms are equivalent. This would allow us to solve for the y value, which we could plug into the an equation to solve for the x value.

Lady_Fox [76]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Subtract the bottom equation from the top equation.

Step-by-step explanation:

i made sure it was the answer which is in khan academy.

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hodyreva [135]

Answer: g(f(x)) = g(x²-7)=x

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
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A map has a scale of 1 in. 4 mi. You measure 3 inches between your house and the movie theatre. How many miles is it from your h
suter [353]
Hi!

1in:4m
3in:xm

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Hope this helps! :)
5 0
3 years ago
A manufacturing company produces parts that are good (90%), partially defective (2%), or completely defective (8%). These parts
Schach [20]

Answer:

The probability that a part is good given that it passed the inspection machine is P=0.978.

Step-by-step explanation:

As the inspection machine detect and discard any part that is completely defective, only the good and partially defective parts passed this inspection.

Then, if we have:

Probability of being a good part P(G)=0.90

Probability of being a patially defective part P(P)=0.02

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Probability of passing the inspection machine = 1-P(D)=1-0.08=0.92

Then, the probability of having a good part, given that it passed the inspection machine is:

P(G|Pass)=P(G)/P(Pass)=0.90/0.92=0.978

4 0
3 years ago
How do you fully reduce 40/56 to lowest terms?
vladimir2022 [97]
10/19. 40/4=10, and 56/4=19. therefore the answer is 10/19.
5 0
3 years ago
When 1760 is divided into 14 equal parts, the remainder is 6. What is a correct way to write the quotient?
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Division is the inverse of multiplication; therefore it depends on knowing the multiplication table.


The problem of division is to find what number times the Divisor will equal the Dividend. That number is called the Quotient. (Lesson 11.) To find the quotient, there is a method called short division.

5 0
3 years ago
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