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Bezzdna [24]
3 years ago
8

Do same-side interior angles have to be on the same (in this case) horizontal line?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Romashka [77]3 years ago
6 0

if the horizontal lines are all parallel, then yes, as long as the angles are on the same side. If the horizontal lines are parallel but the angles are on opposite sides, then no. If the horizontal lines are not parallel, then it would require more work to figure it out


jolli1 [7]3 years ago
4 0
Yes because it’s called same side interior so same lineee
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3 years ago
I need help with a calculus 2 exercise, with a good explanation to what I'm trying to figure out.
Karolina [17]
<h3>Explanation:</h3>

When writing rational expressions, you need to be aware that ...

  1/4x = (1/4)x ≠ 1/(4x)

Parentheses around the denominator are required, unless you're typesetting the expression and can use a fraction bar for grouping.

The derivative of the curve expression is ...

  y' = x - 1/(4x) . . . . . parentheses added to what you wrote

and the expression (1 -(y')^2) can be written ...

  1 -(y')^2 = x^2 +1/2 +1/(16x^2) . . . . . parentheses added to what you wrote

The first and last terms of this trinomial are both perfect squares, so you might suspect the whole trinomial is a perfect square. You recall that ...

  (a +b)^2 = a^2 + 2ab + b^2

This is a good "pattern" to remember. Using it is a matter of <em>pattern recognition</em>, as is the case with a lot of math.

Here, you have ...

  a = x

  b = 1/(4x)

In order for your trinomial to be a perfect square, the product 2ab must equal the middle term of your trinomial. (Spoiler: it does.)

  2ab = 2(x)(1/(4x)) = (2x)/(4x) = 1/2 . . . . . matches the middle term of 1 -(y')^2

Hence your trinomial can be written as the square ...

  1 -(y')^2 = (x +1/(4x))^2

_____

This is convenient because you want to integrate the square root of this. Your integral then becomes ...

\displaystyle\int\limits_{2}^{4}{\left(x+\frac{1}{4x}\right)\,dx

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3 years ago
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denpristay [2]

Answer:

Its 5 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because 1 inch is 100 miles and there are 500 miles so 1 inch times 5 is 5

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mario62 [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes it is

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$5250
$5250-20%=$4200
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3 years ago
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