Answer:
-11.8%
Explanation:
the key to answer this question is to remember that valuation of a bond depends basically of calculating the present value of a series of cash flows, so let´s think about a bond as if you were a lender so you will get interest by the money you lend (coupon) and at the end of n years you will get back the money you lend at the beginnin (principal), so applying math we have the bond value given by:
so in this particular case that one year later there are 29 years to maturity so we have:
so as we have a higher rate the investment has the next return:
Answer:
was it a passage u had to read?
Explanation:
Answer:
BE Scoping strategy CC Horizontal scope D.A)Horizontal installation.
Credit limit refers to the maximum amount of credit a financial institution extends to a client through a line of credit as well as the maximum amount a credit card company allows a borrower to spend on a single card.
Answer:
=> fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 0.4482 = 44.82%.
=> fraction to equity = 0.5518 = 55.18%.
Explanation:
So, in this question or problem we are given the following parameters or data or information which are; that the utility function is U = E(r) – 0.5 × Aσ2 and the risk-aversion coefficient is A = 4.4.
The fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills and its equivalent fraction to equity can be calculated by using the formula below;
The first step is to determine or Calculate the value of fraction to equity.
Hence, the fraction to equity = risk premium/(market standard deviation)^2 - risk aversion.
= 8.10% ÷ [(20.48%)^2 × 3.5 = 0.5518.
Therefore, the value for fraction of the portfolio that should be allocated to T-bills = 1 - fraction to equity = 1 - 0.5518 =0.4482 .
