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anzhelika [568]
2 years ago
7

If the volume of a cylinder is 72 inches^3, what is the volume of a cone that fits exactly inside the cylinder

Mathematics
2 answers:
garik1379 [7]2 years ago
8 0
<h2>Hello!</h2>

The answer is:

ConeVolume=24in^{3}

<h2>Why?</h2>

Since we know the volume of the cylinder,  and we also know that both cylinder and cone have the same height and same base diameter, we can calculate the volume of a cone that fits exactly inside the cylinder using the following relation:

CylinderVolume=3ConeVolume\\\\ConeVolume=\frac{CylinderVolume}{3}

So, from the statement we know that the volume of the cylinder is  72in^{3}

Then, substituting it into the formula, we have:

ConeVolume=\frac{72in^{3} }{3}=24in^{3}

Have a nice day!

xz_007 [3.2K]2 years ago
5 0

The formula for volume of a cylinder is V = PI x r^2 x h

The formula for the volume of a come is V = PI x r^2 x h/3

Divide the area of the cylinder by 3:

72/3 = 24

The volume of the cone is 24 cubic inches.

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Answer:

(a)\frac{dP}{dt}=\frac{4800-1600t-240t^2}{(t^2+20)^2}

(b)P'(5)=-($4.54) Thousand

(c)P'(11)=-($2.10) Thousand

(d)The fifth Month

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the monthly profit model:

P(t)=\frac{240t-40t^2}{t^2+20}

(a)We want to derive a model that gives the Marginal Profit, P' of the book.

We differentiate

P(t)=\frac{240t-40t^2}{t^2+20} using quotient rule.

\frac{dP}{dt}=\frac{(t^2+20)(240-80t)-(240t-40t^2)(2t)}{(t^2+20)^2}

Simplifying

\frac{dP}{dt}=\frac{4800-1600t-240t^2}{(t^2+20)^2}

We have derived a model for the marginal profit.

(b) After 5 months, at t=5

Marginal Profit=P'(5)

\frac{dP}{dt}=\frac{4800-1600t-240t^2}{(t^2+20)^2}

P^{'}(5)=\frac{4800-1600(5)-240(5)^2}{(5^2+20)^2}

=-($4.54) Thousand of dollars

(c)Marginal Profit 11 Months after book release

P^{'}(11)=\frac{4800-1600(11)-240(11)^2}{(11^2+20)^2}

=-($2.10) Thousand of dollars

(d) Since the marginal profit at t=5 is negative, after the 5th Month, the profit starts to experience a steady decrease.

6 0
3 years ago
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PSYCHO15rus [73]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
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mina [271]
That probability is about 0.4207.

4 0
3 years ago
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You read online that the probability of being dealt four‑of‑a‑kind in a five‑card poker hand is 1 / 4165. Explain carefully what
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

There is about 4,164/4,165 chances of not getting getting a four of a kind. So, it is extremely unlikely or even borderline impossible in that situation to get a four of a kind.

<u>But in the long run, it can be increased only if you keep drawing.  So, the awnser would have to be. D  </u>

Step-by-step explanation:

A. It does mean that if you are dealt 4165 five‑card poker hands, one will be four‑of‑a‑kind.

B.  It does not mean that all will be four‑of‑a‑kind. The probability is actually saying that only on the 4165 the poker hand will you get a four‑of‑a‑kind, not just on any of the 4165 poker hands.

C. The probability is actually saying that in the long run, with a large number of five‑card poker hands, the fraction in which you will be dealt a four‑of‑a‑kind is 1 / 4165.

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2 years ago
Which number line shows the solution set for |p-3|=9?
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

Option b

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Step-by-step explanation:

The absolute value is a function that transforms any value x into a positive number.

Therefore, for the function f(x) = |x|  x> 0 for all real numbers.

Then the equation:

|p-3| = 9 has two cases

(p-3) = 9    if h > 3  (i)

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We solve the case (i)

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-p +3 = 9\\p = 3-9\\p = -6

Then the solution is:

p = -6 or p = 12

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3 years ago
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