The correct answer is 2.2 hours.
I<span>f Eva uses the earliest due date priority rule, the order of the dresses will be as follows: W (1 hour processing time, 1 hour due); Y (2 hrs processing time, 3 hrs due); V (3 hrs processing time, 5 hrs due); Z (5 hrs processing time, 7 hrs due); X (4 hrs processing time, 9 hrs due).</span>
It's easier to do the next step using real numbers. For example, if it's 11am now and W is due in 1 hour, then W is due at noon. If Y is due in 3 hours, then Y is due at 2pm, etc. Then, you need to use the processing time to see how long it will take to make the dresses. For example, since W takes one hour to process, it will be done by noon, its due date.
This means that W and Y will be altered on time, V will be 1 hour late, Z will be 4 hours late, and X will be 6 hours late. To find the average tardiness, add these extra hours (1+4+6) = 11, and divide by the total number of dresses (even the ones that weren't late) 5: 11/5 = 2.2 hours.
Answer:
A 6,500
Explanation:
The number of units to be sold is calculated as;
= (Pretax income + Fixed costs) ÷ Contribution margin
Given that;
Pretax income = $35,000
Fixed costs = $420,000
Contribution margin
= Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit
= $200 - $130
= $70
= ($35,000 + $420,000) ÷ $70
= 6,500 units
Answer:
c. recurring growth and decline in real GDP.
Explanation:
A business cycle is also called a economic cycle or trade cycle, and it is the fluctuation of GDP up and down along its long term growth trend. A business cycle consists of a period of boom and contraction in sequence.
It shows rise and fall in production of goods and services within a country including output from businesses, individuals, households, nonprofits, and government.
There are 4 stages that make up the business cycle that is peak, recession , trough, and expansion.
Answer:
The correct answer is $1.2 per share.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:
Interest expense of Bonds = $20,000 × 4% = $800
Now, Interest expense of Bond, After tax = $800 × ( 1 - 50%) = $800 × 0.50
= $400
So, we can calculate the diluted earning by using following formula:
Diluted Earning = (Net income + Interest expense after tax) ÷ Total outstanding shares outstanding
Where, Total outstanding shares = 1,000 shares + 1,000 shares = 2,000 shares
By putting the value, we get
Diluted earning = ($2000 + $400 ) ÷ 2,000
= $1.2 per share
my brain went blank thats hard ima ask my teacher.
