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drek231 [11]
3 years ago
8

Why is it not useful to look around the room when listening to a speech ?

Business
1 answer:
Papessa [141]3 years ago
6 0
Because it’s rude to who u are talking to
You might be interested in
True or False
Ilya [14]
False lolllll I have to write more
6 0
3 years ago
What is the mean 2019E EV/Revenue multiple in the Online Direct Sales comps group in 2019?
ddd [48]

Answer:

The question is not clear and complete.

Let me explain how you can calculate Enterprise Value (EV) to Revenue Multiple

Explanation:

A Enterprise Value (EV) to Revenue Multiple is used to value a business by dividing its enterprise value by its annual revenue. The formula to calculate the Enterprise Value (EV) to Revenue Multiple is EV/Revenue

EV = Enterprise Value

EV can be denoted as (Equity Value + All Debt + Preferred Shares) – (Cash and Equivalents)

While Revenue = Total Annual Revenue

This can be calculated when we have a share price, shares outstanding, debt, and cash or its equivalence.

8 0
3 years ago
You are considering two investment alternatives. The first is a stock that pays quarterly dividends of $0.32 per share and is tr
MrMuchimi

Answer:

The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.

Explanation:

<u>For First stock </u>

Total dividend from first stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.32 * 2 = $0.64

HPR of first stock = (Total dividend from first stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($0.64 + ($31.72 - $27.85)) / $27.85 = 0.1619, or 16.19%

Annualized holding period return of first stock = HPR of first stock * Number 6 months in a year = 16.19% * 2 = 32.38%

<u>For Second stock </u>

Total dividend from second stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.67 * 4 = $2.68

Since you expect to sell the stock in one year, we have:

Annualized holding period return of second stock = The 1-year HPR for the second stock = (Total dividend from second stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($2.68+ ($36.79 - $34.98)) / $34.98 = 0.1284, or 12.84%

Since the Annualized holding period return of first stock of 32.38% is higher than the Annualized holding period return of second stock of 12.84%. the first stock will provide the better annualized holding period return.

The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.

6 0
3 years ago
Cincinnati Exporters wants to raise $40 million to expand its business. To accomplish this, it plans to sell 22-year, $1,000 fac
IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

Minimum number of units to be issued = 45,791.4 units

Explanation:

The units of the bonds to be sold to raise the money equals to the price of the bonds divided by the sum to be raised

The price of a bond is the present value (PV) of the future cash inflows expected from the bond discounted using the yield to maturity.

These cash flows include interest payment and redemption value

The price of the bond can be calculated as follows:

Step 1

PV of interest payment

Semi-annual coupon rate = 5.72/2 = 2.86 %

Semi-annual Interest payment =( 2.86 %×$1000)= $28.6

Semi annual yield = 6.85%/2 = 3.42%

PV of interest payment  

= A ×(1- (1+r)^(-n))/r

A- interest payment, r- yield -3.42%, n- no of periods- 2 × 22 = 44 periods

= 28.6× (1-(1.0342)^(-44)/0.0342)= 645.82

 

Step 2  

PV of redemption value (RV)

PV = RV × (1+r)^(-n)

RV - redemption value- $1000, n- 7, r- 4.5%  

= 1,000 × (1+0.0342)^(-2×22)

= 1000 × 1.0342^(-44)= 227.7

Step 3

Price of bond = PV of interest payment + PV of RV

645.82 + 227.7= 873.525

Minimum number of units to be issued = $40 million/873.5= 45,791.4 units

 

Minimum number of units to be issued = 45,791.4 units

7 0
2 years ago
Charles Berkle is the manager of Nogain Manufacturing and is interested in doing a cost of quality analysis. The following cost
Georgia [21]

Explanation:

a. The classification is shown below:

Prevention cost: This cost incurred so that the faults, or defects could be minimized as compare to before. It includes the machine maintenance expense i.e $3,000

Appraisal cost: This cost incurred specially to meet the quality of the customer expectations. It is a quality control cost. It includes the inspection cost of $15,000

Internal failure: This cost is occurred before delivery the product from the factory. It includes  Scrap and rework of $8,600 and Machine breakdown cost of $4,000  

External failure: This cost is occurred after delivery the product. It includes the warranty expense of $21,000, product return due to defects of $6,000 and Estimated lost sales due to poor quality of $5,000

b. Now the percentage is

= (Prevention and appraisal cost) ÷ (Sales revenue) × 100

= ($3,000 + $15,000) ÷ ($250,000) × 100

= 7.2%

c. The percentage is

= (Internal and external failures) ÷ (Sales revenue) × 100

= ($8,600 + $4,000 + $21,000 + $6,000 + $5,000) ÷ ($250,000) × 100

= 17.84%

Below is the attachment for cost of quality report

7 0
3 years ago
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