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Debora [2.8K]
3 years ago
13

The following account balances were taken from the adjusted trial balance for Laser Messenger Service, a delivery service firm,

for the fiscal year ended April 30, 2019: Depreciation Expense $8,550 Fees Earned 684,000 Insurance Expense 1,200 Miscellaneous Expense 3,600 Rent Expense 60,000 Salaries Expense 336,300 Supplies Expense 3,500 Utilities Expense 41,800 Prepare an income statement. If a net loss has been incurred, enter that amount as a negative number using a minus sign. Be sure to complete the statement heading. Refer to the Chart of Accounts for exact wording of account titles. Use the list of Labels and Amount Descriptions for the correct wording of text items other than account names. You will not need to enter colons (:) on the income statement.
Business
1 answer:
Debora [2.8K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<u>Income Statement for the year ended April 30,2019</u>

Particulars             Amount($)        Amount($)

<u>Revenues</u>  

Fees earned                                  $684000

<u>Expenses</u>  

Depreciation             $8550  

Insurance             $1200  

Miscellaneous     $3600  

Rent                     $60000  

Salaries                     $336300  

Supplies                     $3500  

Utilities                     $41800  

Total expenses                           ($454950)

Net income                                    $229050.

Explanation:

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kotykmax [81]

Answer: An astute trader can make $ 41,666.66.

Explanation: You must first change

$ 1,000,000 per pounds, which would leave a total of £ 500,000. ($ 1,000,000 / 2.00 = £ 500,000;).

Secondly spend £ 500,000 to euros, obtaining € 600,000 (£ 500,000 x 1.20 = € 600,000;).

Thirdly, with euros, buying dollars again, obtaining $ 960,000 (€ 600,000 x 1.60 = $ 960,000), that is, an arbitrage loss of -40,000 in relation to the initial investment.

Finally you must return in the opposite direction:

$ 1,000,000 / 1.6 (€) / 1.2 (£) * 2 - $ 1,000,000 = $ 41,666.66 that is, an arbitrage profit.

4 0
3 years ago
On June 30, Nance Company receives a $5,000, 90-day, 4% note from a customer as payment on her account. How much interest will b
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

50$

Explanation:

5000 x 4% x 90/360 = 50$

5 0
2 years ago
You are the manager of a firm that manufactures front and rear windshields for the automobile industry. Due to economies of scal
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

a. The optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0)

b. Yes, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because \pi ^{Cheat} > \pi ^{Cooperate}.

Explanation:

a. Determine your optimal pricing strategy if you and your rival believe that the new Highlander is a "special edition" that will be sold only for one year.

Note: See the attached excel file for the Representation of one shot normal for of the game played between "You" and "Your Rival" together with the payoffs.

From the attached excel file, the dominant strategy is for “You” and “Your Rival” to charge “Low Price” each. If the dominant strategy is played by “You” and “Your Rival”, the optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0).

b. Would your answer differ if you and your rival were required to resubmit price quotes year after year and if, in any given year, there was a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander? Explain.

When we have a year-after-year competition between “You” and “Your Rival” but with a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander, the payoffs of the firm that continue to comply with the collusive strategy of charging “High Price” by each firm under the normal trigger strategy whereby “You” and “Your Rival” agree to charge high price as long as there is no past deviation by any of the firm, otherwise charge a low price is as follows:

\pi ^{Cooperate} = $6 + $6(100% - 60%) + $6(100% - 60%)^2 + 6(100% - 60%)^2 …….

\pi ^{Cooperate} = $6 / 6% = $10

Therefore, what the firm that cheats earn today is $11 million and it earns $0 forever. The implication of this is that \pi ^{Cheat} = $11

Therefore, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because \pi ^{Cheat} > \pi ^{Cooperate}.

Download xlsx
7 0
2 years ago
Instructions: Place the steps in the performance appraisal process in the correct order, from first to last. Rank the options be
raketka [301]

Performance appraisal is used to compare employee performance against some standards. The steps in the performance appraisal process are;

  • 1. Establishing Performance Standards
  • 2. Communicating Standards
  • 3. Evaluating Performance
  • 4.  Making Decision
  • 5. Discussing Results
  • 6. Taking Action

In the performance appraisal process, the supervisors will first establish the standards that will guide the operations of employees.

Next, they should inform the employees of those standards. They should examine the performances of their employees and make decisions on whether they performed well or not.

Then, they should discuss the results with them and take action on whether to reward or punish them.

Learn more here:

brainly.com/question/15169473

3 0
2 years ago
A business will want to borrow to undertake an investment project when the rate of return on that project is:
pychu [463]

Answer:

B) higher than the interest rate.

Explanation:

In the case when the business wants to borrow for a project so the rate of return would be greater than the rate of interest

And in the case when the rate of interest is lesser than the expected return so the investment would look attractive due to this there is a rise in the borrowing for that investment

Hence, the option b is correct

3 0
2 years ago
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