1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Alex777 [14]
3 years ago
8

What does it mean to adopt a maturity matching approach to financing assets, including current assets? How would a more aggressi

ve or a more conservative approach differ from the maturity matching approach, and how would each affect expected profits and risk? In general, is one approach better than the others? Use your industry for illustration.
Business
1 answer:
dlinn [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Check the following definitions

Explanation:

a. Maturity matching simply means that long term funds should be used to finance long term assets and short term funds should be used to finance short term assets.

That means, long terms funds will finance fixed assets and permanent working capital while short term funds will finance temporary working capital.

If permanent assets are financed with short term funds, then refinancing risk arises, i.e. borrower has to refinance the loan at its maturity date which is of a shorter period. On the other hand if long term funds are used to finance short term assets, then interest has to be paid for the longer period when funds are not even used.

b.

Aggressive approach :

Under the aggressive approach, the firm finances all temporary current assets and some of its permanent current assets with short-term sources of financing. This approach relies more heavily on short-term financing than the other approaches. This brings a little refinancing risk and decrease in profits as short term funds are costlier than long term funds.

Conservative approach:

Under the conservative approach, the firm finances long-term assets, all permanent current assets, and some temporary current assets with long-term sources of funds. This approach relies more heavily on long-term financing than the other approaches. This involves higher pay back period which involves more interest outflow.

c. Generally, all the approahes have their own advantages and disadvantages. The decision of chosing the approach depends on the circumstances of the entity as to requirement of funds, pay back period etc. But the maturity matching approach can be said to be better as it maintains balance between inflow and outflow of funds.

You might be interested in
What must the broker do after the termination of an agency relationship?
galina1969 [7]
? I don’t understand your question
5 0
3 years ago
Complete problem: Total Net Operating Capital XYZ, Inc. reported $20 million in operating current assets, $25 million in net fix
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

$14 million

Explanation:

Operating working capital  = Operating current assets - Operating current liabilities

Operating working capital = $20 million - $6 million

Operating working capital = $14 million

The total net operating capital that XYZ, Inc. has is $14 million

7 0
4 years ago
1. What class of airline service is usually offered only on large airplanes?
just olya [345]
I think United airline offer large airplanes
3 0
3 years ago
If we assume that both countries specialize according to their comparative advantage, then how do we find a terms of trade that
levacccp [35]

Answer:

The best way to find terms of trade that will ensure that two entities are in the best terms of trade will be to look at the opportunity costs of the various products they produce.

A high opportunity cost in one product relative to that of the other entity means the entity with the higher opportunity cost should be trading with the entity with the lower opportunity cost and vice versa.

For example, assume that an entity "A" produces both rice and beans whilst an entity "B" also produces rice and beans too.

If the opportunity cost to A of producing Beans is 300 bags of rice whilst the opportunity cost to B of producing Beans is 120 bags of rice, and the opportunity cost to A of producing rice is 180 bags of beans whilst it is 250 bags of beans to B, the principles of comparative advantage require that A should focus more on producing rice and purchase beans from B whilst B should focus more on producing beans and purchase rice from A.

Cheers!

4 0
3 years ago
Jeffrey works as an independent contractor for an accounting firm jointly owned and managed by the Matthews brothers. Which of t
lions [1.4K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Jeffrey will be solely responsible for making payments for his Social Security (FICA).

Explanation:

Independent contractors act like third party services working for an entity to render services for specific jobs. Independent contractors are not employees of the company who hires them for the job which implies the independent contractors are fully responsible for the payment of their own Social Security and Medicare taxes.

8 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • A collective bundle of shares is called?
    11·1 answer
  • Which consumer electronics manufacturer also produced tires? nokia sharp phillips grundig
    7·1 answer
  • Direct and Indirect Costs Kubin Company's relevant range of production is 18,000 to 22,000 units. When it produces and sells 20,
    5·1 answer
  • True or false if you have a Florida's learner driver license, you can legally operate any two or three wheel motor vehicle on ro
    12·2 answers
  • A company pays down the account's payable account with $2000 cash. What effect does this transaction have on the asset account?
    15·1 answer
  • The quantity of money is ​$5 ​trillion, real GDP is ​$10 ​trillion, the price level is 0.9​, the real interest rate is 3 percent
    15·1 answer
  • What are chemical contaminants
    9·1 answer
  • An economic principle states that the lower the price of a product, the greater the quantity consumers will wish to purchase. Th
    14·1 answer
  • Whom do price supports benefit and whom do<br> they hurt?
    5·1 answer
  • owner withdrawals cause a(n) (increase/decrease) in owner's equity and are recorded directly in owner's (capital/withdrawal/equi
    7·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!