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Alex777 [14]
3 years ago
8

What does it mean to adopt a maturity matching approach to financing assets, including current assets? How would a more aggressi

ve or a more conservative approach differ from the maturity matching approach, and how would each affect expected profits and risk? In general, is one approach better than the others? Use your industry for illustration.
Business
1 answer:
dlinn [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Check the following definitions

Explanation:

a. Maturity matching simply means that long term funds should be used to finance long term assets and short term funds should be used to finance short term assets.

That means, long terms funds will finance fixed assets and permanent working capital while short term funds will finance temporary working capital.

If permanent assets are financed with short term funds, then refinancing risk arises, i.e. borrower has to refinance the loan at its maturity date which is of a shorter period. On the other hand if long term funds are used to finance short term assets, then interest has to be paid for the longer period when funds are not even used.

b.

Aggressive approach :

Under the aggressive approach, the firm finances all temporary current assets and some of its permanent current assets with short-term sources of financing. This approach relies more heavily on short-term financing than the other approaches. This brings a little refinancing risk and decrease in profits as short term funds are costlier than long term funds.

Conservative approach:

Under the conservative approach, the firm finances long-term assets, all permanent current assets, and some temporary current assets with long-term sources of funds. This approach relies more heavily on long-term financing than the other approaches. This involves higher pay back period which involves more interest outflow.

c. Generally, all the approahes have their own advantages and disadvantages. The decision of chosing the approach depends on the circumstances of the entity as to requirement of funds, pay back period etc. But the maturity matching approach can be said to be better as it maintains balance between inflow and outflow of funds.

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The correct option is A and B.

Explanation:

The following will lead to increase in the productivity of the business.

1. By increase in the physical capital stock of each worker

2. By increasing the human capital of each worker.

Increasing in human will lead to increase in productivity and also the increase in the physical capital, the worker will able to increase the productivity.

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When a new partner is admitted to a partnership, a.a bonus is not recorded b.a bonus may be attributable to the old partner c.a
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The required return for Williamson Heating's stock is 12%, and the stock sells for $40 per share. The firm just paid a dividend
olga_2 [115]

Answer:

E: 6.34

Explanation:

First we solve for the PV of the next years dividends using the lump sum PV formula:

\frac{Dividends}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

rate = 12%

\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Year&dividends&PV\\1&1.3&1.1607\\2&1.69&1.3473\\3&2.197&1.5638\\4&2.8561&1.8151\\\end{array}\right]

Total of 5.8869

Then, this with the PV of the future dividends usign the gordon model should match 40 dollars.

so the PV of the indefinite sum of dividends should be: 40 - 5.8869 = 34.1131

\frac{Dividends_1}{return - growth} = Value

This is four years into the future thus, we discount as well for the rate of return We want ot knwo the value at the fourth year to solve for the grow rate:

34.1131 x 1.12^4 = 53.67762328

Now the formual for the gordon model requires next year dividends thus D0 x 1 + g and we don't know g so we have to operate to solve  it:

\frac{2.8561 \times (1+g)}{0.12-g} =53.67762328\\2.8561 + 2.8561g = 53.67762328 / (0.12 - g)\\g ( 1 + 2.8561/53.67762328) = 0.12 - \frac{2.8561}{53.67762328} \\g = 0.066791608 \div 1.053208392= 0.063417277

The correct answer would be E

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