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Alex777 [14]
3 years ago
8

What does it mean to adopt a maturity matching approach to financing assets, including current assets? How would a more aggressi

ve or a more conservative approach differ from the maturity matching approach, and how would each affect expected profits and risk? In general, is one approach better than the others? Use your industry for illustration.
Business
1 answer:
dlinn [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Check the following definitions

Explanation:

a. Maturity matching simply means that long term funds should be used to finance long term assets and short term funds should be used to finance short term assets.

That means, long terms funds will finance fixed assets and permanent working capital while short term funds will finance temporary working capital.

If permanent assets are financed with short term funds, then refinancing risk arises, i.e. borrower has to refinance the loan at its maturity date which is of a shorter period. On the other hand if long term funds are used to finance short term assets, then interest has to be paid for the longer period when funds are not even used.

b.

Aggressive approach :

Under the aggressive approach, the firm finances all temporary current assets and some of its permanent current assets with short-term sources of financing. This approach relies more heavily on short-term financing than the other approaches. This brings a little refinancing risk and decrease in profits as short term funds are costlier than long term funds.

Conservative approach:

Under the conservative approach, the firm finances long-term assets, all permanent current assets, and some temporary current assets with long-term sources of funds. This approach relies more heavily on long-term financing than the other approaches. This involves higher pay back period which involves more interest outflow.

c. Generally, all the approahes have their own advantages and disadvantages. The decision of chosing the approach depends on the circumstances of the entity as to requirement of funds, pay back period etc. But the maturity matching approach can be said to be better as it maintains balance between inflow and outflow of funds.

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Kearney, Inc., makes kitchen tools. Company management believes that a new model of coffee grinder would sell well at a price of
IRINA_888 [86]

Answer:

$0.15 hours per unit

Explanation:

Given that

Direct material cost = $16

Assume Direct labor cost = X

Manufacturing overheads = $18

Profit margin = 20%

Direct labor per hour cost = $28

The computation of direct labor-hour input is shown below:-

Total manufacturing cost = X + $34

Total cost of goods sold = (X + $34) × 1.7 = $66

Direct labor cost per unit

= (X + $34) = $38.82

= $38.82 - $34

= $4.32

Direct labor hours per unit = Direct labor cost per unit ÷ Direct labor per hour cost

= $4.32 ÷ $28

= $0.15 hours per unit

3 0
3 years ago
An applicant should always print their résumé on paper that is _____.
vaieri [72.5K]
The answer is b) white or light colored
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sheffield Company discovered the following errors made in January 2022.
Tasya [4]

Answer:

A)

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Dre Wages expense 400

    Cr Cash 400

2. Dr Service revenue 550

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Dr Cash 5,500

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Dr Equipment 620

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B)

1. Dr Wages expense 400

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4 0
3 years ago
As a result of the flooding as many as 10000 families ........... homless​
melisa1 [442]

Answer:

are is the correct answer

3 0
2 years ago
On October 2, 2016, Starbucks Corporation reported, on its Form 10-K, the following (in millions): 2016 2015 Total expenses $18,
Mrrafil [7]

Answer:

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Explanation:

We know,

Total revenues - Total expenses = Net Income/Earnings

Given,

Total revenues = ?

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Therefore, Total revenues - $18,497.0 = $2,818.9

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Therefore, <em>option D is the answer.</em>

We should not consider operating income because we know, part of expenses is operating expenses. Alternatively, When we deduct operating expenses from gross profit or service revenue, we can get operating income.

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3 years ago
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