Answer:
A) A test with a high cost may also be of high value.
Explanation:
A test's cost add up to the time spent in preparing that test. S much time might have really been spent on it like researching, sitting, time spent, revaluation of the test, as well as other contributions made for the execution of that test. The value of the test can be evaluated to the resources spent for the test. When a test has a high cost, it may also have a high value depending on some variables relating to both the cost of the test as well as its value. Also, every individual's primary objective is usually cost minimization and profit maximization in every thing he does irrespective of type or structure.
Yes and No. In the event of your death or a sickness, you can appoint someone as a deputy to be responsible for the contents of your box. However, other people, like the IRS, cannot open your <span>safety deposit box.</span>
Answer:
$500 million
Explanation:
The solution of the money supply and its effect is here below:-
Decrease in money supply = $50 million ÷ reserve ratio
= $50 million ÷ 10%
= $500 million
If $50 million were used to repay loans, that will have raised money supply. Thus, buying $50 million in government securities from the fed reduces the supply of capital.
Answer:
The answer is: True
Explanation:
First of all, the classical dichotomy in economics assumes that real variables of the economy such as output of goods and services and real interest rates are not influenced by what happens to their nominal counterparts, such as the monetary value of output and nominal interest rate. It doesn´t consider inflation or the nominal supply, in other words money supply is neutral in the economy (because its value is adjusted to inflation).
The real problem with this theory, at least in the short run, is that in real life money supply, interest rates and inflation do affect the GDP of a country. When the money supply of an economy is increased then aggregate demand also increases. More money equals more demand. That happens because the prices of goods and services doesn´t adjust as fast as a change in the money supply. Also this theory doesn´t consider the monetary circuit theory about money being "created" by the banking system every time a loan is made.
Answer:
Year Cashflow [email protected]% PV
$ $
0 (750,000) 1 (750,000)
1 350,000 0.9259 324,065
2 325,000 0.8573 278,623
3 250,000 0.7938 198.450
4 180,000 0.7350 132,300
NPV 184,438
The correct answer is D. The difference in answers is due to rounding error.
Explanation:
Net present value is the diffrence between initial outlay and present value of inflow. We need to discount the cash inflows for year 1 to year 4 at 8% and then calculate the present value of cash inflows by multiplying the cash inflows by the discount factors. Finally, we will calculate NPV by deducting the initial outlay from the present value of cash inflows.
