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slamgirl [31]
2 years ago
6

The cost of debt capital The cost of debt that is relevant when companies are evaluating new investment projects is the marginal

cost of the new debt that is to be raised to finance the new project. rate. It usually differs from the average cost of the required return (or cost) of newly-issued debt is often referred to as the financial capital raised by a firm in the past. Consider the case of Purple Lemon Shipbuilders: Purple Lemon Shipbuilders is considering issuing a new twenty-five-year debt issue that would pay an annual coupon payment of $75. Each bond in the issue would carry a $1,000 par value and would be expected to be sold for a market price equal to its par value. Purple Lemon's CFO has pointed out that the firm will incur a flotation cost of 2% when initially issuing the bond issue. Remember, these flotation costs will be 30%. from the proceeds, the firm will receive after issuing its new bonds. The firm's marginal federal-plus-state tax rate is To see the effect of flotation costs on Purple Lemon's after-tax cost of debt, calculate the before-tax and after-tax costs of the firm's debt issue with and without its flotation costs, and insert the correct costs into the boxes. (Note: Round your answer to two decimal places.) The before-tax cost of debt without flotation cost: After-tax cost of debt without flotation cost: Before-tax cost of debt with flotation cost: After-tax cost of debt with flotation cost:
Business
1 answer:
jenyasd209 [6]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Since the market value equals face value,coupon rate =yield is 75/1000=7.5%

That is 7.5% is before tax cost of floating the bonds

At tax rate of 30%,after tax cost of floating bond =7.5%*(1-30%)=5.25%

However,with a flotation cost of 2%,the before tax cost of flotation is calculated  using below formula found in the explanation section.

((75+(1000-980)/25)/(980+1000)*2)=7.66%

Since tax rate remains 30%,the after tax cost  of floating the bond with floating cost of 2% is: 7.66%*(1-30%)=5.36%  

Explanation:

(Interest payment+((Par value-Net Proceds Value)/number of yr)/(Net Proceds+Par value)/2  

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During an exit interview, a manager discovers that the reason an employee is resigning is because of unlawful harassment from a
natka813 [3]

Answer:

See explanation below for answer.

Explanation:

The manager should embark on an investigation, in order to get to the bottom of the matter. The accusation must be treated seriously in order to make sure that the root cause of the problem is established, this will be done with the details of the harassment that the employee provides.

Also, the witnesses that the employee has mentioned must be questioned in order to establish the facts of the issue. The matter must be treated with the utmost urgency, in order to stop the issue from repeating itself, because this will affect the productivity of the affected employees if left unchecked.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jordan has the following assets and liabilities: Two cars $10,000 House $200,000 Mortgage $100,000 Cash $1,000 Car loans $3,000
kirill [66]

Answer: B. increase to $209,000;increase to $209,000

Explanation:

<em>If he uses that money to pay off his mortgage, his wealth would </em><em><u>increase to $209,000</u></em><em> if he puts that money in his checking account, his wealth would </em><em><u>increase to $209,000.</u></em>

<u></u>

A person's wealth is calculated by deducting their liabilities from assets. In this case Jordan's wealth is;

= 10,000 + 200,000 + 1,000 + 2,000 - 100,000 - 3,000 - 1,000

= $109,000

If he pays off the Mortgage his debt will reduce by $100,000 which will increase his wealth to $209,000.

If he puts the money in his checking account, his assets will increase by $100,000 which will bring his wealth to $209,000 as well.

7 0
3 years ago
Escents, a body lotion manufacturer from Canada, negotiated a contract with a shea butter company in Mali, Africa, to supply 40%
Svetlanka [38]

Answer: Infrastructure Challenge.

Explanation:

A major problem in developing countries is insufficient and often damaged infrastructure. There are lack of roads and other mean of access to quite some areas in the country and those routes that do have road networks sometimes see trade still hampered by damage to those road networks.

Sometimes there would be potholes that require careful maneuvering and sometimes the roads would be washed out. In this case Escents is experiencing Dela due to washed-out roads or faulty bridges which are examples of infrastructural damage.

3 0
3 years ago
2.1: A debit is A : a decrease to an account. B : an entry on the left side of an account. C : an entry on the right side of an
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

B : an entry on the left side of an account.

Explanation:

There are two terms i.e debit and credit.  

The accounts that reported as an expense, losses, assets are recorded in the left-hand side of an account as it contains the debit balance.

While the account reported as a revenue, gains, liabilities & stockholder equity are recorded in the right-hand side of an account as it contains the credit balance.

7 0
3 years ago
Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta for t
finlep [7]

Answer: Adviser B is the superior stock selector.

Explanation:

For the comparision between the two investment advisers, the Jenson's Alpha will be utilized.

Jenson's Alpha:

= Portfolio Actual Return - CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio Return)

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 6%

Market return(E(Em) = 14%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1.5 (14-6)

= 6 + 12

= 18%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 18% = 1%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1(14-6) = 6 + 1(8) = 14%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 14% = 2%

Adviser B is a better selector because he has a larger alpha of 2% compared to Adviser A who has 1%.

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 3%

Market return(E(Rm) = 15%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1.5 (15-3)

= 3 + 18

= 21%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 21% = -2%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1(15-3) = 3 + 1(12) = 15%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 15% = 1%

Given the changes, Adviser B is still the better selector because he has a larger alpha of 1% compared to Adviser A who has -2%.

7 0
2 years ago
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