Answer: 
Step-by-step explanation:
First you put it in to y= mx+b form.

Then you subtract 34 from both sides

Then you divide 8 from both sides
Leaving you with

Dur
1 more than 2 times input
input is x
1 more than twice x
1+2x
f(x)=2x+1
Answer:
She did not consider the multiplicative inverse property of a real number
Step-by-step explanation:
Jacinta in her conclusion did not consider the Multiplicative Inverse property of real numbers.
Let x be an irrational number.
So, 
If x is an irrational number, then its reverse is also an irrational number. So by the Multiplicative Inverse property their product is 1 and 1 is a rational number. Thus, Jacinta was incorrect.
The ratio of the radii is 2:1, so the ratio of their surface areas is 4:1. <span>The area of a sphere is defined by 4 * pi * r^2 </span>
<span>So if the radius of the first sphere is 2r, then it would be (2r)^2 = 4r^2 </span>
<span>The rest is the same. So the ratio of their surface areas would be </span>
<span>4 * pi * 4r^2 divided by </span>
<span>4 * pi * r^2 </span>
<span>or 4.</span>
Answer:
I think it would be 2
Step-by-step explanation:
hope it help and was rigjt