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PolarNik [594]
3 years ago
5

1) Find the lump that must be deposited today to have a future value of $ 25,000 in 5 years if funds earn 6 % componded annually

.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Hoochie [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: $ 18681.45

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Future value : FV=\$25,000

The rate of interest : r=0.06

The number of time period : t=5

The formula to calculate the future value is given by :-

\text{Future value}=P(1+i)^n, where P is the initial amount deposited.

\Rightarrow\ 25000=P(1+0.06)^5\\\\\Rightarrow\ P=\dfrac{25000}{(1.06)^5}\\\\\Rightarrow\ P=18681.4543217\approx=18681.45

Hence, the lump that must be deposit today : $ 18681.45

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3|x + y|^2 - (xy)^2. if x = 3 and y = -5
Bond [772]

Answer:

-213

General Formulas and Concepts:

<u>Pre-Algebra</u>

Order of Operations: BPEMDAS

  1. Brackets
  2. Parenthesis
  3. Exponents
  4. Multiplication
  5. Division
  6. Addition
  7. Subtraction
  • Left to Right

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Step 1: Define</u>

3|x + y|² - (xy)²

x = 3

y = -5

<u>Step 2: Evaluate</u>

  1. Substitute:                    3|3 - 5|² - (3(-5))²
  2. Multiply:                        3|-2|² - (-15)²
  3. Exponents:                   3|-2|² - 225
  4. Absolute Value:           3(2)² - 225
  5. Exponents:                   3(4) - 225
  6. Multiply:                        12 - 225
  7. Subtract:                       -213
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2 years ago
Points A and B lie on a circle with radius 1, and arc AB ⌢ has a length of <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%20%
Murrr4er [49]

Answer:

0.167

EXPLANATION:

To figure out the answer to this question, you'll first need to know the formula for finding the circumference of a circle.

The circumference, C, of a circle is C=2πr, where r is the radius of the circle. For the given circle with a radius of 1, the circumference is C=2(π)(1), or C=2π.

To find what fraction of the circumference the length of AB⌢ is, divide the length of the arc by the circumference, which gives \frac{\pi }{3}÷2\pi.

This division can be represented by \frac{\pi }{3}×\frac{1}{2}\pi =\frac{1}{6}

can also be rewritten as 0.166 or 0.167.

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The answer is 32.0 with a notation bar over the 0

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masya89 [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

74/74

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2 years ago
Susie worked 9 hours and was paid $135. Mike was paid $12.00 per hour. Who made more money per hour?
Sveta_85 [38]

Answer:

susie made more money. she earned 15 dollars per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

if you divide 135 by 9 you get 15. so susie got paid 15 dollars per hour. therefore she earned 3 more dollars than mike.

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