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finlep [7]
3 years ago
5

A spinner is divided into 3 equal sections and is spun 100 times landing on blue 48 times,red 22 times, and green 30 times. What

is the theoretical probability of landing on red with this spinner?
A. 33.3%
B. 49.5%
C. 50%
D. 46%
Mathematics
1 answer:
timofeeve [1]3 years ago
7 0
A. 33.3% because 100/3 is about 33.3
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In your own words, explain why there is no solution to the following equation:| x-6|= -8 Also, knowing this, how does it help to
solniwko [45]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

So the two lines before and after the expression means absolute value, or modulus of, knowing this, it means that the answer must always yield positive. So if x-6 is positive, it will stay positive, if x-6 is negative, it will turn positive, therefore it can never yield a negative value.

Now im assuming the second question is meant to be absolute value of x-5 is less than 0, because it makes no sense otherwise.

So now knowing that x-5 is always positive, or 0, but this inequality only wants less than 0, this means there are no solutions for the inequality.

5 0
3 years ago
56 = −8d + 8 there's not multiple answers
ollegr [7]

Answer:

d= -6

Step-by-step explanation:

56 = -8d + 8

1) You want to get d by itself. Subtract 8 from both sides.

56 = -8d + 8

- 8           - 8

<em>(8 - 8 = 0, and 56 - 8 is 48.)</em>

48 = -8d

2) Then, you divide my -8 on both sides.

(<em>48 / -8 is -6, and -8d / -8 is just d.)</em>

-6 = d

So, d = -6

3 0
3 years ago
2(n2 + 1) – 3(n2 – 3) + 3(2n2 – 2),<br> n=(1/4)
IceJOKER [234]

]Answer:

5\frac{5}{16}

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute the value of the variable into the equation and simplify.

2(\frac{1}{4} ^{2} +1-3(\frac{1}{4} ^{2} -3)+3((2*\frac{1}{4}^{2}  )-2)

Solve it out.

Multiply / divide / add / subtract everything out.

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No

Step-by-step explanation:

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