Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
÷ 6
leave the fraction, change division to multiply, turn 6 upside down
= × 
( cancel 2 and 6 by 2 )
= 
×
= 
=
9514 1404 393
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The cost of each plan (y) is the sum of the initial fee and the product of the mileage charge and the number of miles (x).
First Plan: y = 40 +0.13x
Second Plan: y = 53 +0.08x
__
We can find when the costs are the same by solving this system of equations. A way to do that is to subtract the second equation from the first:
(y) -(y) = (40 +0.13x) -(53 +0.08x)
0 = -13 +0.05x
Multiplying by 20 gives ...
0 = -260 +x
Adding 260, we have ...
x = 260
The plans cost the same for 260 miles of driving.
__
The cost of the plans for that distance is ...
y = 40 +0.13x = 40 +0.13(260) = 40 +33.80
y = 73.80
The cost when the two plans cost the same is $73.80.
Answer:
a) -6/2
b) -9/2
Step-by-step explanation:
a) rearrange by making y the subject as y = mx+c
y = -6/2x-9/2
the gradient = -6/2
b) c is the y-intercept as it touch the y-axis, therefore -9/2 is where the line crosses the y-axis
Answer:
C. 17 feet
Step-by-step explanation:
I apologize if this is inaccurate, as I have not done this material in awhile. But, I hope it helps and is accurate! Have a great day! :D
