It would be an obtuse angle
Step-by-step explanation:
4⅘=22/5.
hope this helps you.
Z=1 eventually you get 15 divided by 15 giving you Z=1 it’s a long equation
The given quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram since the opposite sides are of same length AB and DC is 4 and AD and BC is 2.
<u>Step-by-step explanation</u>:
ABCD is a quadrilateral with their opposite sides are congruent (equal).
The both pairs of opposite sides are given as AB = 3 + x
, DC = 4x
, AD = y + 1
, BC = 2y.
- AB and DC are opposite sides and have same measure of length.
- AD and BC are opposite sides and have same measure of length.
<u>To find the length of AB and DC :</u>
AB = DC
3 + x = 4x
Keep x terms on one side and constant on other side.
3 = 4x - x
3 = 3x
x = 1
Substiute x=1 in AB and DC,
AB = 3+1 = 4
DC = 4(1) = 4
<u>To find the length of AD and BC :</u>
AD = BC
y + 1 = 2y
Keep y terms on one side and constant on other side.
2y-y = 1
y = 1
Substiute y=1 in AD and BC,
AD = 1+1 = 2
BC = 2(1) = 2
Therefore, the opposite sides are of same length AB and DC is 4 and AD and BC is 2. The given quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram.
In order to solve or know the probability of having 2 girls
and 2 boys, assumed that a girl is as likely as a girl at each birth, pascal’s
triangle will be likely used. And we will be referring to the line 4 of pascal’s
triangle, which was 1 4 6 4 1. Then it
will look like this: 1 = 4 girls; 4 = 3 girls & 1 boy; 6 = 2 girls & 2
boys; 4 = 3 boys & 1 girl; 1 = 4 boys. And now for the solution in order to
get the probability of having 2 girls and 2 boys is to divided into the sum of 1+4+6+4+1.
