Answer:


Explanation:
Given
--- Ken's share
Required
The fraction each got
Since they both shared a cake, we have:

Substitute: 

Factorize


Divide both sides by 3

Recall that: 


Answer:
Which is an SI base unit that makes up part of the unit of force?
1.candela
Answer:
d= 64.7 km

displacement vector
Explanation:
total distance = 40 + 30 = 70 km
during 1st flight


during 2nd flight



the two component of r are:


Geographical Direction ![\theta = tan^{-1}\frac{r_y}{r_x} [tex]\theta = 40.9^{o}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Ctheta%20%3D%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5Cfrac%7Br_y%7D%7Br_x%7D%20%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5D%5Ctheta%20%3D%2040.9%5E%7Bo%7D)
Displacement d

d= 64.7 km
displacement vector
Answer:
A.
B.s=397.6 m
Explanation:
Given that
speed u= 284.4 m/s
time t = 1.4 s
here he want to reduce the velocity from 284.4 m/s to 0 m/s.
So the final speed v= 0 m/s
We know that
v= u + at
So now by putting the values
0 = 284.4 -a x 1.4 (here we take negative sign because this is the case of de acceleration)

So the acceleration while stopping will be
.
Lets take distance travel before come top rest is s
We know that


s=397.6 m
So the distance travel while stopping is 397.6 m.
Answer:
a) Magnitude of maximum emf induced = 0.0714 V = 71.4 mv
b) Maximum current through the bulb = 0.00793 A = 7.93 mA
Explanation:
a) The induced emf from Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction is related to angular velocity through
E = NABw sin wt
The maximum emf occurs when (sin wt) = 1
Maximum Emf = NABw
N = 1
A = 4 cm² = 0.0004 m²
B = 6 T
w = (284/60) × 2π = 29.75 rad/s
E(max) = 1×0.0004×6×29.75 = 0.0714 V = 71.4 mV
Note that: since we're after only the magnitude of the induced emf, the minus sign that indicates that the induced emf is 8n the direction opposite to the change in magnetic flux, is ignored for this question.
b) Maximum current through the bulb
E(max) = I(max) × R
R = 9 ohms
E(max) = 0.0714 V
I(max) = ?
0.0714 = I(max) × 9
I(max) = (0.0714/9) = 0.00793 A = 7.93 mA
Hope this Helps!!