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vovangra [49]
3 years ago
8

A company purchased a building for $900,000 by obtaining a 30-year mortgage payable. Assume the lending arrangement specifies th

at the company will pay $20,000 of the principal over the first year, $30,000 in the second year, and the remainder evenly over the final 28 years. What amount of the $900,000 would be classified as a long-term liability at the time the mortgage payable is obtained
Business
1 answer:
RUDIKE [14]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A total of $880,000 would be classifiad as a long-term liability.

Explanation:

Long-term liabilities are also known as non-current liabilities.

Long-term liabilities consist of all the liabilities that are not due within a year, in other words, that can be paid off for a period of time longer than six months.

In this case, only $20,000 of principal of a total of $900,000 are paid over the first year. The remaining principal payment of $880,000 (plus any interest), is to be paid over the next 29 years, and for this reason, these payments will be recorded in the balance sheet as long-term or non-current liabilities.

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Answer:

Formula field with a return type of currency.

Explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
Straight-Line: Amortization of bond discount LO P2 Skip to question [The following information applies to the questions displaye
natima [27]

Answer:

Legacy

1. Journal Entry:

January 1:

Debit Cash $570,443

Debit Bonds Discount $69,557

Credit Bonds Payable $640,000

To record the issuance of the bonds at a discount.

2. Total bond interest expense to be recognized over the bonds' life:

= $287,160

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

January 1, 2019

Face value of bonds issued = $640,000

Price of bonds =                       $570,443

Bonds discount =                      $69,557 ($640,000 - $570,443)

Coupon interest rate = 8.5%

Market interest rate = 12%

Maturity period = 4 years

Interest payment = semiannual on June 30 and December 31

With straight-line amortization of bonds discount, the semiannual amortization will be = $8,695

Semi-annual interest payment = $27,200 ($640,000 * 4.25%)

Semi-annual interest expense = $35,895 ($27,200 + $8,695)

Annual interest expense = $71,790

1. Transaction Analysis

January 1:

Cash $570,443 Bonds Discount $69,557 Bonds Payable $640,000

2. Total bond interest expense to be recognized over the bonds' life:

= $287,160 ($71,790 * 4) or ($35,895 * 8)

6 0
2 years ago
Tiptoe shoes, had annual revenues of $185,000, expenses of $103,700, and paid dividends of $18,000 during the current year. The
Natalka [10]

<u>Calculation of ending retained earnings balance after closing:</u>

The balance in ending retained earnings after closing can be calculated as follows:

Balance in retained earnings account before closing $297,000

Add: Revenues $185,000

Less: Expenses $103,700

Less: Dividends $18,000

Ending retained earnings balance after closing = $360,300

Hence, The balance in ending retained earnings after closing is <u>$360,300</u>






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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a small manufacturing facility, one welder is needed for every 200 hours of machine-hours or fewer in a month. The welder is
Alisiya [41]

Answer:

C. $17,500

Explanation:

1,300 / 200 = 6.5

we are going to hire between 6 and 7 welder as we are given the requirement <u>"for every 200 hours or fewer in a month"</u> we should round above and not below: 7 welder. Besides, we cannot hire "half" or "quarter" of an employee therefore we have to move between integer solutions.

7 0
3 years ago
On August 1, 2020, Ascent Corp. borrowed $80,000 cash on an 8-month note payable with a 7% annual rate that requires Ascent to p
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Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Interest payable:

= Borrowed amount × rate of interest × given months ÷ total months

= $80,000 × 7% × 5 ÷ 12

= $2,333.33

And,

Interest expense:

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= $80,000 × 7% × 3 ÷ 12

= $1,400

So here for recording the payment of interest the interest payable is debited for $2,333.33

The same is to be considered

6 0
3 years ago
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