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aleksandr82 [10.1K]
2 years ago
5

2÷1/3= how do you solve 1/3 of cherries divided equally between two people

Mathematics
2 answers:
kolbaska11 [484]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

sergejj [24]2 years ago
7 0
Make the two 2/1 and make the 1/3 a 3/1. Your equation should be 2/1 x 3/1, then you must simplify your answer.
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Is <br><br> Y=-3/4x -2 <br> Y=3/4x+1 <br><br> One solution many solution or no solution
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I’m not sure what I can do
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2 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the answer? I'll give branliest
Katena32 [7]

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
How many times does 27 go into 324
Leona [35]
324 divided by 27 is 12.
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3 years ago
Could sum 1 pls help with this quick i’m stuck??
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It’s 3 brooooooooooooo
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Read 2 more answers
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