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d1i1m1o1n [39]
4 years ago
10

A 55-year-old executive assistant presents to your office for evaluation of pain in her wrist. She states that the pain has been

present daily. She has taken OTC analgesics for the pain, which seem to help. She denies fever, chills, or rashes. On physical examination, she has pain and tenderness over the right wrist but not the left. She has a hard dorsolateral nodule on the DIP joint of her right middle finger. The MCP joints are normal. What is your most likely diagnosis?A. Gouty arthritisB. Rheumatoid arthritisC. Systemic lupus erythematosusD. Osteoarthritis
Health
1 answer:
san4es73 [151]4 years ago
5 0

ANSWER: OSTEOARTHRITIS

EXPLANATION:

Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis (i.e inflammation of one or more joints causing stiffness and pain). It affects more than 30millions people worldwide.

Moreover, It occurs over a period of time, where the protective cartilage that cushions the ends of bones (articulated at the joint) wears down.

Hence, it can damage any joint (including in the hands, spine, hips, and knees).

However, this medication, physiotherapy and in some cases surgery (joint replacement) can help reduce pain and stiffness of the joint.

Thus, the 55-year-old executive assistant is diagnosed for Osteoarthritis, after evaluating pain in her wrist. This is presumably caused by the fact that she is ageing and the nature of her work.

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