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Furkat [3]
3 years ago
9

A company uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. Atthe end of the current year, the company's unad

justed trial balance reported thefollowing selected amounts:Accounts receivable$ 362,000 debit Allowance for uncollectible accounts570 credit Net sales807,000 credit All sales are made on credit. Based on past experience, the company estimates 0.3% ofcredit sales to be uncollectible. What adjusting entry should the company make at theend of the current year to record its estimated bad debts expense?
Business
1 answer:
nevsk [136]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below;

Bad debt expense A/c Dr   $2,421

  To Allowance for doubtful debts  A/c  $2,421

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

The computation of the bad debt expense is given below

= Net sales × estimated percentage given

= $807,000 × 0.3%

= $2,421

To determine the estimated bad debt expenses we debited the bad debt expense account and credited the allowance for doubtful debts

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Under what economic system do all businesses operate only as directed by the government?
Sergeu [11.5K]
<span>hello there your answer would be communism</span>
7 0
2 years ago
A stock has a beta of 1.4, an expected return of 17.2 percent, and lies on the security market line. A risk-free asset is yieldi
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

the portfolio's return will be Ep(r)= 9.2 %

Explanation:

if the stock lies on the security market line , then the expected return will be

Ep(r) = rf + β*( E(M)- rf)

where

Ep(r) = expected return of the portfolio

rf= risk free return

E(M) = expected return of the market

β = portfolio's beta

then

Ep(r) = rf + β*( E(M)- rf)

E(M) = (Ep(r) - rf ) / β + rf

replacing values

E(M) = (Ep(r) - rf ) / β + rf

E(M) = ( 17.2% - 3.2%) /1.4 + 3.2% = 13.2%

since the stock and the risk free asset belongs to the security market line , a combination of both will also lie in this line, then the previous equation of expected return also applies.

Thus for a portfolio of β=0.6

Ep(r) = rf + β*( E(M)- rf) = 3.2% + 0.6*(13.2%-3.2%) = 9.2 %

Ep(r)= 9.2 %

5 0
3 years ago
The neoclassical view holds that long-term expansion of potential GDP due to _______________________ will determine ____________
boyakko [2]

Answer:

1.  economic growth;

2.  the size of the economy

Explanation:

According to the neoclassical standpoint on issues relating to macroeconomics, it is believed that, over a long period of time, the economy will vary around its potential GDP and its natural rate of unemployment.

Therefore, the size of the economy is defined by potential GDP, and wages and prices will adjust in an intelligent manner so that the economy will move back to its potential GDP level of output.

Hence, The neoclassical view holds that long-term expansion of potential GDP due to ECONOMIC GROWTH will determine THE SIZE OF THE ECONOMY

4 0
3 years ago
How is the price elasticity of demand​ measured? A. by multiplying the percentage change in the​ product's price by the percenta
Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

How is the price elasticity of demand​ measured?

c. by dividing the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a product by the percentage change in the product's price

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand (PED or Ed) is a measure used in economics to show the responsiveness, or elasticity, of the quantity demanded of a good or service to a change in its price when nothing but the price changes. More precisely, it gives the percentage change in quantity demanded in response to a one percent change in price.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When a "bubble" arises, asset prices are driven by:
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

d. shifts in market psychology and successive waves of irrational exuberance.

Explanation:

Bubble in respect to financial market means an unexpected and non-explainable reason. This although the economists believes arises because of the emotional attachment and effects on an asset. As for example: when an asset is made using the specific raw material which is discovered to be precious in the terms it is ancient then, automatically the price of the asset increases in the market.

Thus, this is nothing but a market psychology that is basically an effect of emotional concerns of individual mindset, which is irrational.

This theory is explain by Keynesian the economists.

7 0
2 years ago
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