Answer:
keeping colonists from going farther west into indian lands
Explanation:
britain declared the proclamation of 1763 that said that no colonists should settle west the appalchian mts. this was after pontiacs rebellion and it was set to avoid more indian attacks
this proclamation angered many colonists bc they thought they deserved to expand further west
Due to the deaths of most of the population, "ordinary farm workers, who had been forced into serfdom previously, shot up by 50%. More bullion among a smaller population meant more wealth across all classes and because the same land was in use and it was now plentiful, it resulted in technological advances as well." - Hank Campbell (found at Science20.com)
About a third of the clergy fell to the Black Death, making answer a. unlikely.
I never found any information stating Peasants migrated into cities for medical care, making answer b. unlikely.
Lower classes benefited from the Black Death economically, therefore c. is my final answer.
Doctors at this time knew nothing about how to cure disease, they also made little to none advancements. Answer d. is very wrong.
The Pullman Strike demonstrated the power of the labor movement by involving 250,000 railroad workers on 20 railroads.
<h3>What was one outcome of the Pullman strike in 1894?</h3>
The companies obtained a court injunction against the strikers, and the strike was defeated when the American Federation of Labor ordered its members to return to work. A search for a more peaceful method to settle labor disputes among railroad workers was one of the outcomes.
<h3>What occurred in the Pullman strike of 1894?</h3>
On May 11, 1894, Pullman employees went on strike in protest. Pullman workers would receive assistance if the American Railway Union agreed. The rail network was disrupted as a result of switchmen who were members of the ARU refusing to handle Pullman cars. The nation's railroad workers went on numerous strikes as a result of this initial boycott.
To learn more about Pullman Strike here
brainly.com/question/7223166
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Answer:
Back in the 1800s, Texas was owned by Mexico. Mexico's primary language is Spanish. Hence, the Spanish names. Names weren't often always changed.
Hope this helps!
-AxekickNebulite
Defeat the Persian empire