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Kazeer [188]
3 years ago
8

Tawstir Corporation has 400 obsolete personal computers that are carried in inventory at a total cost of $576,000. If these comp

uters are upgraded at a total cost of $100,000, they can be sold for a total of $160,000. As an alternative, the computers can be sold in their present condition for $40,000. What is the net advantage or disadvantage to the company from upgrading the computers rather than selling them in their present condition?
Business
1 answer:
34kurt3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

If the company upgrades the units, income will increase by $20,000 (compared to sell as-is).

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Units= 400

If these computers are upgraded at a total cost of $100,000, they can be sold for a total of $160,000.

As an alternative, the computers can be sold in their present condition for $40,000.

We won't take into consideration costs before the upgrade, because they will remain in both options.

<u>Sell as-is:</u>

Effect on income= $40,000 increase

<u>Continue processing:</u>

Effect on income= 160,000 - 100,000= $60,000 increase

If the company upgrades the units, income will increase by $20,000 (compared to sell as-is).

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Whitepunk [10]
True. According to the ADA if a mobility device cannot be secured to the floor of your vehicle it is ok to provide the ride. The ADA stands for the Americans with Disabilities Act. In this Act it states that even though the mobility device should always be secure to the floor for proper safety, the operator must still allow those we can not get their device secured to ride the bus. 
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3 years ago
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After taking the information from a new client for the opening of a new account, an RR submits this information to his BOM. The
Darya [45]

Options:

[A] The new client is a personal friend of the RR who will be in charge of overseeing the new account.

[B] The new client agrees to provide a real address of a home or business, even though he insists that all correspondence be sent to the P.O. Box.

[C] The new client submits a written statement stating that for convenience purposes, he only uses a P.O. Box for all correspondence.

[D] The new client tells the RR and the BOM that he has not yet established a place of residence in the area and that the P.O. Box is the only fixed address he can give.

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Unless the new client provides a real address (either home or office), the account cannot be opened. FINRA regulations do not consider a P.O. Box as an acceptable residential address. The RR can send all the correspondence to the P.O. Box if the client requests it, but the client must still provide a real home or business address.

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4 years ago
Grouper Corporation had 138,000 shares of stock outstanding on January 1, 2020. On May 1, 2020, Grouper issued 72,000 shares. On
velikii [3]

Answer:

183,450 shares

Explanation:

The computation of the weighted average number of shares is shown below:

January 1 to April = 138,000 shares  for 4 months = 46,000 shares

May to June = 72,000 shares + 138,000 shares = 210,000 shares for 2 months = 35,000 shares

July to September = 210,000 shares - 10,200 shares = 199,800 shares for 3 months = 49,950 shares

October to December = 199,800 + 10,200 shares = 210,000 for 3 months = 52,500 shares

Now weights average number of shares is

= 183,450 shares

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3 years ago
When entering variables in a spreadsheet function (or in a financial calculator) the "sign convention" can be critical to achiev
Kazeer [188]

Answer:

• Payment

• Present value

• Future value

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The payment function can be used to determine the periodic repayment of loans or any amount which is to be invested at io as to reach targeted amounts in future. The formula for a payment is given as:=PMT (rate, nper, pv, [fv], [type])

The Present value can be defined as a financial function in excel which used in determining the value of future cash flows relating to today's terms. That is, how much amounts which is receivable in the future is available today.The formulas for present value is given as:=PV(rate,nper,pmt,(fv),type))

The future value can be used when determining how much a certain amount or investment will be worth at future time. The formula fir calculating future value is FV A = A * {(1 + r)n - 1} / r.

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What is the hedonic theory of wage differentials? Discuss the characteristics of a normal-profit isoprofit curve. Combine isopro
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

hedonic Theory of Wages:  

Accept just two kinds of occupations in the work showcase (safe employments versus unsafe occupations). Under this, sheltered employments have likelihood of zero that specialist gets harmed. Unsafe occupations have likelihood of 1 and laborers know this. Laborers care about whether their occupations are sheltered or hazardous.  

Laborers expand utility by picking wage-chance blends that offer them the best measure of utility. Expect laborers disdain hazard, yet to various degrees, for example they have diverse ideal pay chance blends. Firms are on their isoprofit bends that give the hazard wage mixes that give zero (financial) benefit. They vary between firms. An indulgent pay work mirror the connection among wages and occupation qualities. It matches laborers with various hazard inclinations with firms that can give employments that coordinate these diverse hazard inclinations.  

Apathy bends uncover the exchange offs that a laborer favors among wages and level of hazard (chance thought to be an 'awful'). To give a similar utility, dangerous occupations must compensation higher wages than safe employments. The more prominent the laborer's aversion for hazard, the more prominent the pay off required for changing from a safe to an unsafe activity, and the more noteworthy the booking cost. As the pay firms bring to the table for hazardous occupations increments, less firms will extend to dangerous employment opportunities and bringing about a descending slanting interest bend as it turns out to be increasingly productive for firms to make occupations spare than to pay the higher compensation.  

Suppositions of Differential Wage Theory are:  

  1. The compensation differential is sure. Hazardous employments pay more than spare occupations.  
  2. The balance wage differential is that of the last laborer employed (the peripheral specialist). It's anything but a proportion of the normal abhorrence for chance among laborers in the work showcase.  
  3. Along these lines, everything except the minimal specialist are overcompensated by the market.  

On the off chance that a few specialists like to work in dangerous occupations (they are eager to pay for the option to be harmed) and if the interest for such laborers is little, the market repaying differential is negative. At point P, where supply rises to request, laborers utilized in unsafe occupations acquire not as much as laborers utilized in safe employments. The outline given beneath shows the circumstance:  

Isoprofit Curve:  

As it is exorbitant to create well-being, a firm contribution hazard level P* can make the working environment more secure for example move left on flat pivot, just on the off chance that it diminishes compensation while keeping benefits consistent, so that the iso-benefit bend is upward slanting. Higher isoprofit bend returns lower benefit.

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3 years ago
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