Answer:
70
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
34
Step-by-step explanation:
Look at triangles FCE and DCE.
Sides FC and DC are congruent.
Sides FE and DE are congruent.
Side CE is congruent to itself.
Since 3 sides of one triangle are congruent to 3 sides of another triangle, the triangles are congruent.
By CPCTC, angles FCE and 1 are congruent.
Since m<FCE = 34, then m<1 = 34.
We will build the equation in the form of y = mx + b where 'm' is the slope and 'b' is the y-intercept.
We know the slope and we know the where the line intercepts the y-axis.
The answer:
y = 1x + -1
Because the coefficient of "1x" is just one we can simplify to the final answer:
y = x + -1
MrBillDoesMath!
Discussion:
For every value of x, g(x) = f(x) -1 meaning that the y-value of g(x) is 1 less than the corresponding y value of f(x). So the graph of g(x) is "below" f(x) or it is translated 1 unit downward from f(x)
MrB