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tekilochka [14]
3 years ago
15

What is ∑[100(−4)n−1] equal to? 4 is on top n=1 on bottom

Mathematics
2 answers:
saveliy_v [14]3 years ago
8 0
    4
<span>   ∑ [100(−4)n−1]
  n=1

Once again, since this is summation notation:

</span>Start at the number on the bottom. Plug in that number to the equation on the right, plug in the next number into the equation on the right, and so on, until you get to the number on top. Plug in that final number, and after you get the solution, add all the solutions you have all together.

<span>One thing though: <span>the bottom number cannot be bigger than the number on top.
</span></span>
n=1; 100 x (-4) x (1) - 1 = -401
n=2; 100 x (-4) x (2) - 1 = -801
n=3; 100 x (-4) x (3) - 1 = -12001
n=4; 100 x (-4) x (4) - 1 = - 16001

-401-801-12001-16001 = -29204
antiseptic1488 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

I tried using that other answer but it wasn't correct, this is the right answer!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

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bekas [8.4K]
Adjacent so that means 1 wall will be shared

each square has 4 sides,
but they share a side so 4+4-1=7 sides total

200 divided by 7 sides=200/7 ft per side

the area of a square is side^2
side=200/7
so area=(200/7)^2=40000/49
that's for 1 square
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7 0
3 years ago
Right before a snow storm the hardware store sold
eduard

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

60/15=4

7 0
3 years ago
HELP<br>8 Prove that 8^6+4^11 is divisible by 17. Answer __*17
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

<u>262,144</u> goes in the blank

Step-by-step explanation:

8^6 = 262,144

4^11 = 4,194,304

4,194,304 + 262,144 = 4,456,448

4,456,448 ÷ 17 = 262,144

8 0
2 years ago
Please help no links please
allsm [11]

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The secant- tangent angle MLK is half the difference of the intercepted arcs, that is

\frac{1}{2} (KN - KM) = 70° ( multiply both sides by 2 to clear the fraction )

KN - KM = 140°

KN - 61° = 140° ( add 61° to both sides )

KN = 201° → C

8 0
3 years ago
I will give you 5 stars and a heart!
Artemon [7]
So from these given details will be right choice A. sure because given that 1 unit cube = 1 inch so from this result that 48 unit cubes = 48 cubic inches 

hope this will help you 
7 0
3 years ago
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